44 questions · pass mark 70% · answer at your own pace, then submit for the full key.
Q1.
Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery
Q2.
Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the following on the transponder
Q3.
When two aircraft are approaching head on the rules of the air require that
Q4.
An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for
Q5.
While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100 degrees from him. You should see his
Q6.
A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft requires a wake vortex separation of
Q7.
EAT is the time that an aircraft
Q8.
Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be
Q9.
An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters
Q10.
Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is
Q11.
The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are
Q12.
If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts, he/she should not fly within
Q13.
A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means
Q14.
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right of way belongs to the aircraft.
Q15.
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at 6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
Q16.
Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as
Q17.
At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 Hpa. The pressure altitude would be approx.
Q18.
Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air
Q19.
Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is
Q20.
While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the following levels.
Q21.
During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be
Q22.
The marshalling signal – “ arms extended overhead, palms facing inwads, arms swung from the extended position inwards means
Q23.
An aircraft used for simulated instrument flying must have
Q24.
Which one of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct
Q25.
Controlled airspace is
Q26.
In the airfield circuit the “finals” call is made when
Q27.
At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAP Is pilot should see
Q28.
The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or Gairspace below F 100 is
Q29.
To indicate the existence of a fuel emergency to ATC a pilot should
Q30.
What are possible effects of hypoxia below 10000 feet?
Q31.
After drinking residual alcohol can remain for upto 24 hrs in
Q32.
Class ‘D’ airspace in India
Q33.
Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The –of way belongs to the aircraft
Q34.
VFR Flights shall be operated between
Q35.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time
Q36.
The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to
Q37.
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after is set to
Q38.
During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip vortices will
Q39.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off
Q40.
Colour of aircraft stand markings shall be
Q41.
Colour of Intermediate holding position markings shall be
Q42.
Ac ‘A’ maintaining F 250 and reports over DPN at 1100 UTC. ‘B’ wants to climb on same track from F 210 to F 270 and estimates to reach F 270 at 1105 UTC His ETA DPN is 1106 UTC. Which of following statement is true
Q43.
Ac ‘A’ reports 20 NMs inbound to LLK at F 150 Ac ‘B’ reports 38 NMS inbound to LLK at same track & level ‘A’ is 15 kts faster than ‘B’. Which statement is true
Q44.
An aircraft having an AUW of 14,500 kgs falls in following category