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TECH SPECIFIC — CH.2

DA-42 NG: Powerplant — Austro E4-B & PropellerTechnical Specific — DGCA CPL practice questions

Question 1 of 24

The engines fitted to the DA-42 NG are:

A.Two Austro E4-B turbo-diesels
B.Two Lycoming IO-360 piston engines
C.Two Rotax 912 engines
D.Two Continental IO-550 engines

All 24 questions — DA-42 NG: Powerplant — Austro E4-B & Propeller

Technical Specific · DGCA CPL. The correct option is marked on each.

  1. Q1. The engines fitted to the DA-42 NG are:

    • A.Two Austro E4-B turbo-diesels
    • B.Two Lycoming IO-360 piston engines
    • C.Two Rotax 912 engines
    • D.Two Continental IO-550 engines

    Why: Liquid-cooled, four-cylinder, four-stroke, turbocharged, common-rail direct injection, compression ignition.

  2. Q2. The fuel used by this aircraft is:

    • A.AVGAS 100 LL
    • B.AVGAS 80 LL
    • C.Jet A / Jet A-1
    • D.MOGAS

    Why: It is a diesel engine, so it burns jet fuel, not AVGAS.

  3. Q3. The maximum take-off RPM and its time limit are:

    • A.2100 RPM, 5 minutes
    • B.2300 RPM, 5 minutes
    • C.2500 RPM, 20 seconds
    • D.2700 RPM, unlimited

    Why: All RPM figures for this aircraft are propeller RPM.

  4. Q4. The maximum continuous RPM is:

    • A.2100 RPM
    • B.2300 RPM
    • C.2400 RPM
    • D.2700 RPM

    Why: Corresponding to 92% power. Take-off power (2300 RPM) may be used for only 5 minutes.

  5. Q5. The maximum permitted overspeed is:

    • A.2300 RPM for 5 minutes
    • B.2400 RPM for 1 minute
    • C.2500 RPM for 20 seconds
    • D.2700 RPM for 10 seconds

    Why: 2500 RPM for 20 seconds.

  6. Q6. Maximum take-off power is:

    • A.92% (about 114 kW)
    • B.100% (about 123.5 kW)
    • C.75% (about 95 kW)
    • D.100% (about 160 kW)

    Why: 100%, about 123.5 kW, limited to 5 minutes. Maximum continuous is 92%, about 114 kW.

  7. Q7. The reduction gearbox ratio between engine and propeller is:

    • A.1 : 1.69
    • B.1 : 2.5
    • C.1 : 1.0
    • D.1 : 3.2

    Why: The propeller turns considerably slower than the crankshaft, which is why propeller RPM and engine RPM are different.

  8. Q8. Engine power is controlled by:

    • A.Throttle, propeller and mixture levers
    • B.A single power lever per engine
    • C.Throttle and mixture only
    • D.A propeller lever only

    Why: The engine control unit resolves fuelling, boost and propeller pitch. There is no mixture control and no separate propeller lever.

  9. Q9. How many engine control units (ECUs) are fitted per engine?

    • A.One
    • B.Two
    • C.Three
    • D.One shared between both engines

    Why: ECU A and ECU B, for redundancy. The VOTER switch normally sits in AUTO and selects between them.

  10. Q10. The minimum propeller RPM at which feathering is possible is:

    • A.750 RPM
    • B.1000 RPM
    • C.1300 RPM
    • D.1700 RPM

    Why: Below this the blades stay at the fine start-lock pitch and will not feather. This is why you feather promptly after a failure, while the propeller is still turning fast.

  11. Q11. The propeller is feathered by:

    • A.Pulling the propeller lever fully back
    • B.Shutting the engine down with the ENGINE MASTER switch
    • C.Closing the fuel selector
    • D.Pressing the feather button on the panel

    Why: This releases the hub oil and the blades drive to feather.

  12. Q12. Increasing the oil pressure into the propeller hub causes the blade pitch to:

    • A.Become finer, and RPM to increase
    • B.Become coarser, and RPM to decrease
    • C.Move to feather
    • D.Remain unchanged

    Why: Reducing the pressure coarsens the pitch and lowers RPM.

  13. Q13. The pressure accumulator used for unfeathering is charged to approximately:

    • A.12 bar
    • B.22 bar
    • C.35 bar
    • D.50 bar

    Why: 22 bar (about 320 PSI). It is a nitrogen-oil type, charged while the engine runs normally.

  14. Q14. A loss of gearbox oil pressure will drive the propeller:

    • A.To fine pitch
    • B.Towards the feathered position
    • C.To a fixed pitch
    • D.To maximum RPM

    Why: A fail-safe design that prevents a runaway overspeed.

  15. Q15. The maximum oil pressure is:

    • A.5.5 bar
    • B.6.0 bar
    • C.6.5 bar
    • D.8.5 bar

    Why: The normal operating range is 2.5 to 6.0 bar.

  16. Q16. The normal operating range of oil pressure is:

    • A.1.5 – 2.5 bar
    • B.2.5 – 6.0 bar
    • C.3.5 – 6.5 bar
    • D.45 – 85 PSI

    Why: 2.5 – 6.0 bar.

  17. Q17. The minimum and maximum engine oil quantities are:

    • A.3 litres and 7 litres
    • B.5 litres and 7 litres
    • C.4 quarts and 6 quarts
    • D.6 quarts and 10 quarts

    Why: 5 litres and 7 litres. Maximum oil consumption is 0.1 litre per hour.

  18. Q18. The maximum oil temperature is:

    • A.120 °C
    • B.135 °C
    • C.140 °C
    • D.245 °C

    Why: Minimum is −30 °C.

  19. Q19. The maximum gearbox temperature is:

    • A.100 °C
    • B.120 °C
    • C.150 °C
    • D.200 °C

    Why: 120 °C. The minimum at full load is 35 °C.

  20. Q20. The maximum coolant temperature is:

    • A.95 °C
    • B.105 °C
    • C.120 °C
    • D.140 °C

    Why: 105 °C. Minimum at start-up is −30 °C; minimum at full load is 60 °C.

  21. Q21. The maximum fuel temperature is:

    • A.40 °C
    • B.50 °C
    • C.60 °C
    • D.75 °C

    Why: 60 °C.

  22. Q22. The minimum and maximum fuel pressures are:

    • A.4 bar and 7 bar
    • B.4 PSI and 7 PSI
    • C.12 bar and 30 bar
    • D.15 bar and 30 bar

    Why: 4 bar and 7 bar.

  23. Q23. A fire warning for an engine is triggered when the engine compartment temperature exceeds approximately:

    • A.150 °C
    • B.200 °C
    • C.250 °C
    • D.350 °C

    Why: An overheat detector in each engine bay closes the circuit and a warning appears on the flight display.

  24. Q24. The engines are started using:

    • A.Magnetos and an impulse coupling
    • B.Glow plugs and a pre-heat sequence
    • C.Spark plugs and a booster coil
    • D.A hand-swung propeller

    Why: A compression-ignition engine has no spark plugs or magnetos, so there is no magneto check.