Full Mock Papers + Oral / Viva Question BankRadio Telephony — DGCA CPL practice questions
Question 1 of 417
ICAO was created by which international convention?
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Radio Telephony · DGCA CPL. The correct option is marked on each.
Q1. ICAO was created by which international convention?
- A.Warsaw Convention
- B.Geneva Convention
- C.Chicago Convention✓
Q2. On which date was the Chicago Convention signed, leading to the creation of ICAO?
- A.7th December 1944✓
- B.4th April 1944
- C.1st January 1945
Q3. When did the Chicago Convention come into existence (become effective)?
- A.7th December 1944
- B.4th April 1947✓
- C.30th June 1945
Q4. Where is the headquarters of ICAO located?
- A.Geneva, Switzerland
- B.Montreal, Quebec, Canada✓
- C.New York, USA
Q5. ICAO mainly develops which of the following to support global aviation safety?
- A.Local airfield rules
- B.Airport security codes
- C.Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs)✓
Q6. How many contracting states does ICAO currently have?
- A.172
- B.193✓
- C.205
Q7. How many regional offices does ICAO maintain?
- A.5
- B.9
- C.7✓
Q8. How many geographic regions are maintained under ICAO?
- A.6
- B.9✓
- C.12
Q9. Which of the following is NOT one of ICAO’s geographic regions?
- A.AFI – Africa-Indian Ocean
- B.MID – Middle East
- C.SEA – Southeast Asia✓
Q10. ICAO office responsible for India falls under which regional office?
- A.AFI – Africa-Indian Ocean
- B.Bangkok (Asia and Pacific region)✓
- C.NAT – North Atlantic
Q11. Which ICAO body is responsible for adopting Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs)?
- A.ICAO Assembly only
- B.ICAO Secretariat
- C.ICAO Council✓
Q12. IATA is primarily known as what type of organization?
- A.A government aviation regulator
- B.A global trade organization for the air transport industry✓
- C.A military aviation body
Q13. What is the main objective of IATA?
- A.Conduct aircraft manufacturing
- B.Manage airport operations worldwide
- C.Promote safe, reliable, secure, and economical air services✓
Q14. What percentage of total global air traffic is approximately represented by IATA member airlines?
- A.70%
- B.85%
- C.83%✓
Q15. How many airlines are members of IATA?
- A.220
- B.Over 370✓
- C.150
Q16. When was IATA founded?
- A.7th December 1944
- B.19th April 1945✓
- C.1st March 1946
Q17. Where was IATA founded?
- A.Montreal, Canada
- B.Geneva, Switzerland
- C.Havana, Cuba✓
Q18. Where is the headquarters of IATA located?
- A.Montreal, Quebec, Canada✓
- B.New York, USA
- C.London, United Kingdom
Q19. SARPs are issued by ICAO under which international agreement?
- A.Warsaw Convention
- B.Geneva Convention
- C.Chicago Convention✓
Q20. Which ICAO body is responsible for adopting SARPs?
- A.ICAO Assembly
- B.ICAO Secretariat
- C.ICAO Council✓
Q21. What does the acronym SARPs stand for?
- A.Safety and Regulation Procedures
- B.Standard Aviation Rule Policies
- C.Standards and Recommended Practices✓
Q22. How many annexes currently contain ICAO SARPs?
- A.12
- B.19✓
- C.24
Q23. What is the primary purpose of SARPs?
- A.To manage airline ticketing
- B.To control airport finances
- C.To ensure global uniformity in aviation standards✓
Q24. What defines a Standard in ICAO SARPs?
- A.The word MAY
- B.The word SHOULD
- C.The word SHALL✓
Q25. Uniform application of SARPs is considered essential for what purpose?
- A.Reducing aviation taxes
- B.Ensuring safety and regularity of international air navigation✓
- C.Promoting airline marketing practices
Q26. If a Contracting State cannot comply with a Standard, what must it do according to the Chicago Convention?
- A.Cancel all international flights
- B.Notify the ICAO Council as per Article 38✓
- C.Request permission from member airlines
Q27. Which Article of the Chicago Convention requires States to inform ICAO about differences from Standards?
- A.Article 26
- B.Article 12
- C.Article 38✓
Q28. Which word is used in ICAO documents to define a Recommended Practice?
- A.SHALL
- B.SHOULD✓
- C.MAY
Q29. Uniform application of Recommended Practices is considered what?
- A.Legally mandatory
- B.Not related to aviation safety
- C.Desirable for the safety and regularity of international air navigation✓
Q30. What is a Contracting State expected to do regarding Recommended Practices?
- A.Endeavour to conform to them✓
- B.Strictly enforce them by law
- C.Ignore them unless convenient
Q31. If a State does not comply with a Recommended Practice, what is required?
- A.No compulsory notification to the ICAO Council✓
- B.Mandatory report under Article 38
- C.Cancellation of all operations
Q32. Recommended Practices are considered desirable for what aspect?
- A.Airline pricing
- B.Domestic tourism
- C.Supporting the safety and regularity of international air navigation✓
Q33. PANS-ATM (Doc 4444) is published by ICAO for what primary purpose?
- A.To regulate aircraft manufacturing
- B.To specify the operating procedures to be applied by air traffic services units✓
- C.To train airport security staff
Q34. Why is PANS-ATM required in addition to Annex 11?
- A.Annex 11 is outdated
- B.Annex 11 applies only to domestic flights
- C.Annex 11 is not detailed enough for ATS operations✓
Q35. PANS-ATM is primarily intended for which group?
- A.Airline management teams
- B.Aircraft dispatchers
- C.Air Traffic Services (ATS) personnel✓
Q36. Who else, besides ATS personnel, should be familiar with sections of PANS-ATM relating to Air Traffic Management?
- A.Airport ground handling staff
- B.Flight crews✓
- C.Maintenance engineers
Q37. PANS-ATM provides more detailed guidance than which ICAO Annex?
- A.Annex 14
- B.Annex 2
- C.Annex 11✓
Q38. SUPPS are created when which of the following is necessary?
- A.A State wants to publish its own national regulations
- B.A specific region requires procedures different from worldwide procedures✓
- C.Airlines request new route structures
Q39. Who determines the need for regional procedures that differ from global ones?
- A.Individual State airlines
- B.ICAO Assembly
- C.Regional Air Navigation Meetings✓
Q40. SUPPS are approved for use in which areas?
- A.Worldwide
- B.Only within their respective geographic regions✓
- C.Only within ICAO headquarters
Q41. The status of SUPPS is similar to which other ICAO document type?
- A.Annexes
- B.PANS (Procedures for Air Navigation Services)✓
- C.Airworthiness Manuals
Q42. DGCA is primarily responsible for which area in Indian civil aviation?
- A.Airport construction
- B.Airline marketing
- C.Aviation safety regulation✓
Q43. DGCA regulates air transport services operating where?
- A.Only international flights
- B.Only domestic flights
- C.To/from/within/over India✓
Q44. Where is the headquarters of DGCA located?
- A.Mumbai
- B.Bengaluru
- C.New Delhi✓
Q45. Which of the following is a key function of DGCA?
- A.Manufacturing aircraft
- B.Registration of civil aircraft✓
- C.Setting fuel prices
Q46. DGCA is responsible for the licensing of which personnel?
- A.Airport managers
- B.Pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, and flight engineers✓
- C.Airline ground staff
Q47. Which aviation personnel licensing is also under DGCA’s authority?
- A.Cabin crew
- B.Meteorologists
- C.Air Traffic Controllers✓
Q48. DGCA certification of aerodromes includes which type of facilities?
- A.Cargo warehouses
- B.CNS/ATM facilities✓
- C.Duty-free shops
Q49. DGCA regulates operations of flights belonging to which operators?
- A.Only Indian operators
- B.Only cargo operators
- C.Both Indian and foreign operators✓
Q50. DGCA coordinates flexi-use of airspace between which groups?
- A.Airlines and passengers
- B.Civil and military air traffic agencies✓
- C.Travel agents and airlines
Q51. Monitoring aircraft noise and emissions falls under which ICAO Annex?
- A.Annex 14
- B.Annex 11
- C.Annex 16✓
Q52. DGCA encourages indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft by acting as what?
- A.A regulator
- B.A catalytic agent✓
- C.A sponsor
Q53. DGCA coordinates with ICAO mainly for what purpose?
- A.Hiring foreign pilots
- B.Provision of more air routes through Indian airspace✓
- C.Approving airport uniforms
Q54. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) operates under which global body?
- A.European Union
- B.Commonwealth Secretariat
- C.United Nations Organization (UNO)✓
Q55. Where is the headquarters of ITU located?
- A.Montreal, Canada
- B.Vienna, Austria
- C.Geneva, Switzerland✓
Q56. ITU was formed by combining which two earlier bodies?
- A.ICAO + IATA
- B.International Telegraph Union 1865 + International Radiotelegraph Convention 1906✓
- C.WMO + IMO
Q57. In which year was the ITU officially established in its modern form?
- A.1954
- B.1934✓
- C.1984
Q58. India signed the ITU convention during which 1982 conference?
- A.Geneva Conference 1971
- B.WARC Conference 1967
- C.11th Nairobi Conference 1982✓
Q59. When did the 1982 ITU convention become effective for India?
- A.1st July 1982
- B.1st April 1983
- C.1st January 1984✓
Q60. How many volumes are ITU regulations divided into?
- A.2
- B.3
- C.4✓
Q61. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITU regulation volumes?
- A.Articles
- B.Resolutions
- C.Manuals✓
Q62. Which ITU regulation volume contains items like Q-codes and emission classes?
- A.Appendices✓
- B.Resolutions
- C.Recommendations
Q63. What is the primary purpose of ITU?
- A.Regulating air traffic
- B.Allocating radio spectrum and improving telecom efficiency✓
- C.Granting aviation licenses
Q64. WRC stands for what?
- A.World Aeronautical Regulatory Committee
- B.Wireless Aviation Radio Council
- C.World Radiocommunication Conference✓
Q65. What is the purpose of WARC?
- A.To train pilots
- B.To regulate airspace
- C.To review global radio communication and ITU’s working✓
Q66. Which countries participate in WARC?
- A.Only developed countries
- B.Only ITU founders
- C.All ITU member countries✓
Q67. Which ITU bureau handles radio communication matters?
- A.ITU-T
- B.ITU-D
- C.ITU-R✓
Q68. ITU-T deals with which area?
- A.Radio navigation
- B.Telecommunication standards✓
- C.Space tracking
Q69. ITU-D is responsible for what?
- A.Dangerous goods regulations
- B.Aviation safety development
- C.Telecommunication development✓
Q70. When was the Airports Authority of India (AAI) formed?
- A.1st January 1989
- B.1st April 1995✓
- C.1st March 2000
Q71. AAI was formed by merging which two organizations?
- A.DGCA + BCAS
- B.Indian Airlines + Air India
- C.International Airports Authority of India + National Airports Authority✓
Q72. Where is the headquarters of AAI located?
- A.Mumbai
- B.Kolkata
- C.New Delhi✓
Q73. Which of the following is a major objective of forming AAI?
- A.Training pilots
- B.Monitoring aircraft noise
- C.Integrated development and modernization of airports✓
Q74. AAI is responsible for the design and operation of which airports?
- A.Only international airports
- B.Only domestic airports
- C.Both international and domestic airports✓
Q75. AAI manages Indian airspace extending beyond territorial limits as accepted by whom?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.ICAO✓
- C.ISRO
Q76. Which of the following is included in AAI’s responsibilities?
- A.Certification of aircraft
- B.Airline financial auditing
- C.Construction and management of passenger terminals✓
Q77. AAI is responsible for developing which type of terminals?
- A.Railway cargo terminals
- B.Cargo terminals at international and domestic airports✓
- C.Shipping terminals
Q78. AAI expands and maintains which operational areas?
- A.Cockpit instrumentation
- B.Catering lounges
- C.Runways, aprons, taxiways✓
Q79. Which visual aids are provided by AAI?
- A.Flight management computers
- B.Airport lighting systems and markings✓
- C.Aircraft weather radars
Q80. Which area is NOT a responsibility of AAI?
- A.Airport terminal development
- B.Airspace management
- C.Licensing of pilots✓
Q81. CARs are issued by DGCA under which legal authority?
- A.Aircraft Act 1950
- B.Aircraft Rules 1937✓
- C.ICAO Annex 6
Q82. The primary purpose of CARs issued by DGCA is to—?
- A.Replace ICAO Standards completely
- B.Provide information on AFTN operations
- C.Meet ICAO requirements and standardize aviation procedures✓
Q83. How many Sections are the CARs issued by DGCA divided into?
- A.5
- B.11✓
- C.21
Q84. CAR Section 2 deals with—?
- A.Licensing of engineers
- B.Airworthiness requirements✓
- C.Dangerous goods transport
Q85. CAR Section 7 covers—?
- A.Meteorology procedures
- B.Flight crew standards, training, and licensing✓
- C.Radio communication procedures
Q86. CARs are primarily intended to—?
- A.Provide military aviation regulations
- B.Provide technical specifications for airport construction
- C.Ensure standardized civil aviation procedures in compliance with ICAO✓
Q87. Which DGCA document governs pilot licensing standards?
- A.CAR Section 3
- B.CAR Section 7✓
- C.CAR Section 11
Q88. Which of the following is a responsibility covered under CAR Section 2?
- A.Medical assessment of flight crew
- B.Ensuring aircraft meet airworthiness and operational requirements✓
- C.ATCO licensing
Q89. CARs are primarily applicable to—?
- A.ATC only
- B.Meteorological departments only
- C.All civil aviation stakeholders including operators, pilots, AMEs, and ATC✓
Q90. Which ICAO Annex deals with the licensing of flight crew, ATCOs, and AMEs?
- A.Annex 6
- B.Annex 1✓
- C.Annex 7
Q91. The Rules of the Air are contained in—?
- A.Annex 12
- B.Annex 2✓
- C.Annex 10
Q92. Which Annex defines the Units of Measurement to be used in air and ground operations?
- A.Annex 6
- B.Annex 5✓
- C.Annex 13
Q93. Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks fall under—?
- A.Annex 8
- B.Annex 9
- C.Annex 7✓
Q94. Which Annex defines the standards for Air Traffic Services (ATS)?
- A.Annex 2
- B.Annex 10
- C.Annex 11✓
Q95. Standards for Aerodrome design and operation come from—?
- A.Annex 15
- B.Annex 14✓
- C.Annex 7
Q96. Annex 10 mainly deals with which aspect of aviation?
- A.Aerodrome design
- B.Aircraft accident investigation
- C.Aeronautical telecommunications✓
Q97. Which Annex 10 volume deals with actual airborne and ground communication systems (e.g., CPDLC, ACARS, SATCOM)?
- A.Volume I
- B.Volume III✓
- C.Volume V
Q98. Which of the following systems is not covered under Annex 10 Volume I?
- A.VOR
- B.ILS
- C.TCAS✓
Q99. CPDLC and ADS-C operational requirements appear under which Annex 10 volume?
- A.Volume III✓
- B.Volume II
- C.Volume IV
Q100. Standard ELT battery endurance is
- A.12 hours
- B.24 hours
- C.48 hours✓
Q101. Which situation typically triggers an INCERFA?
- A.Aircraft declares PAN-PAN
- B.Aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes
- C.No RT contact and aircraft overdue by more than 30 minutes✓
Q102. Which situation qualifies as DETRESFA?
- A.Aircraft cannot establish initial contact
- B.Fuel on board considered to be exhausted✓
- C.Aircraft 10 minutes late in arrival
Q103. The 4-letter ICAO location indicator for Indian stations always begins with which letter?
- A.M
- B.K
- C.V✓
Q104. What does the second letter of an ICAO location indicator represent?
- A.AFSRA zone
- B.Country / FIR✓
- C.Station name
Q105. The last two letters of a 4-letter ICAO location indicator denote
- A.FIR
- B.Actual aerodrome/station✓
- C.Chart identification
Q106. Which organization publishes AERADIO containing Indian location indicators?
- A.DGCA
- B.AAI✓
- C.IATA
Q107. Location indicators are also published internationally in
- A.ICAO Annex 10
- B.ICAO Doc 7910✓
- C.ICAO Doc 7030
Q108. India has been divided into how many aeronautical regions for location indicator purposes?
- A.3
- B.6
- C.4 (Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai)✓
Q109. Density altitude represents
- A.The actual altitude of the aircraft
- B.Altitude corrected for wind
- C.The altitude in Standard Atmosphere corresponding to the observed density✓
Q110. High density altitude means
- A.High air density and better aircraft performance
- B.Low air density and reduced aircraft performance✓
- C.Low altitude and high pressure
Q111. What is the maximum penalty for unauthorized use of radio communication equipment, as per the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885?
- A.Fine up to $1,000
- B.Imprisonment for up to 6 months or fine, or both.
- C.Imprisonment for up to 3 years or fine, or both.✓
Q112. What is the ICAO standard pronunciation for the digit 9?
- A.NINE
- B.NINER✓
- C.NINAH
Q113. What is the recommended range of speech rate (words per minute) for routine radio communication?
- A.50 to 80 words per minute
- B.Not exceeding 100 words per minute✓
- C.120 to 150 words per minute
Q114. How are flight levels (FLs) above the Transition Altitude normally transmitted by radio?
- A.In feet above mean sea level (MSL).
- B.As the full number followed by 'THOUSAND FEET'.
- C.As the words FLIGHT LEVEL followed by the individual digits.✓
Q115. Why are standard words and phrases used in radiotelephony?
- A.To save time
- B.For formality
- C.To eliminate ambiguity and misunderstanding✓
Q116. Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS) are published in which ICAO document?
- A.Doc 4444
- B.Doc 7030/4✓
- C.Doc 8168
Q117. What is the approval authority for Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS)?
- A.National aviation authorities
- B.ICAO Secretariat
- C.ICAO Council✓
Q118. SUPPS contain procedures that supplement which type of procedures?
- A.Military procedures
- B.Airport firefighting SOPs
- C.Worldwide air navigation procedures✓
Q119. Which of the following publications is issued by AAI under Aeronautical Information Services (AIS)?
- A.ATPL question paper
- B.Aviation fuel circular
- C.AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, PIBs✓
Q120. What type of information is published in the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?
- A.Temporary and short-term information
- B.Long-lasting information essential to air navigation✓
- C.Real-time weather updates
Q121. Which document contains information that does NOT qualify for a NOTAM or inclusion in the AIP?
- A.PIB
- B.AIC✓
- C.AIRAC
Q122. Which of the following best describes a NOTAM?
- A.Regular updates of ATC staffing
- B.Telecommunicated notice of any change in facility, service, or hazard✓
- C.Annual publication of navigation charts
Q123. AIRAC is a system used for—?
- A.Publishing daily weather forecasts
- B.Emergency ATC coordination
- C.Providing advance notice of significant changes on fixed common effective dates✓
Q124. What is the primary purpose of an AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular)?
- A.To replace NOTAMs
- B.To provide non-urgent information relating to safety, administrative, or technical matters✓
- C.To publish time-sensitive NOTAMs
Q125. A NOTAM should be originated when the information—?
- A.Has no operational significance
- B.Can wait for the next AIC
- C.Is critical and time-sensitive for flight operations✓
Q126. Aeronautical Information Services (AIS) is included in—?
- A.Annex 4
- B.Annex 3
- C.Annex 15✓
Q127. What is the ICAO document number assigned to PANS-ATM?
- A.Document 8168
- B.Document 4444✓
- C.Document 7300
Q128. What is the total number of ITU member states?
- A.160
- B.193✓
- C.205
Q129. Aircraft operating within, to, or through an ADIZ must obtain which clearance prior to departure?
- A.ATC route clearance
- B.Flight Information Clearance
- C.Air Defence Clearance (ADC)✓
Q130. Communication Procedures including radiotelephony phraseology are contained in which volume of Annex 10?
- A.Volume V
- B.Volume II✓
- C.Volume I
Q131. Standard radiotelephony phraseology used for all RT communication is published in which volume?
- A.Volume II✓
- B.Volume I
- C.Volume V
Q132. What is the full pronunciation for the number 5 when transmitting a series of digits in aeronautical mobile service communications?
- A.FIVE
- B.FIFE✓
- C.FIV
Q133. The time transmitted in the aeronautical mobile service should be given to the nearest
- A.Hour
- B.10 minutes
- C.Minute✓
Q134. The call sign of the ground station should normally appear at which point in a routine communication initiated by the aircraft?
- A.It is stated only at the end of the transmission.
- B.It is stated immediately following the aircraft's own call sign.
- C.It is stated first, before the aircraft's own call sign.✓
Q135. Which of the following is the standard phraseology for saying 'Yes' or 'That is correct'?
- A.ROGER
- B.CONFIRM
- C.AFFIRM✓
Q136. Which of the following ATC instructions are always mandatory readback items?
- A.Frequency change instructions.
- B.Taxi instructions.
- C.Altitude and flight level instructions are always mandatory readback items.✓
Q137. What is the correct way to express the time 0930 Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) to a ground station?
- A.ZERO NINER THREE ZERO ZULU
- B.ZERO NINER THREE ZERO HOURS
- C.TIME ZERO NINER THREE ZERO✓
Q138. What is the correct phraseology for requesting the magnetic heading to be flown to reach the station?
- A.REQUEST QDR
- B.REQUEST QDM✓
- C.REQUEST QNH
Q139. When an aircraft's assigned altitude or flight level is not to be read back, what phraseology should the controller use?
- A.ROGER
- B.READBACK NOT REQUIRED
- C.Altitude and flight level instructions are always mandatory readback items.✓
Q140. What is the standard ICAO phonetic word for the letter 'X'?
- A.Xavier
- B.X-ray✓
- C.Xylophone
Q141. The procedural word (proword) used by an ATC unit to indicate a mistake has been made in the transmission and that the corrected version will follow immediately is
- A.NEGAT
- B.CORRECTION✓
- C.ERROR
Q142. If an ATC unit transmits 'PASS YOUR MESSAGE', what does this request imply?
- A.The aircraft should now change frequency.
- B.The controller is ready to receive the full content of the previous message.✓
- C.The aircraft should stand by and wait for instructions.
Q143. The safety signal SECURITÉ (spoken three times) has priority over which other class of message?
- A.Distress messages (MAYDAY)
- B.Urgency messages (PAN-PAN)
- C.All other communications except distress and urgency.✓
Q144. The phonetic spelling for the letter 'V' in the ICAO phonetic alphabet is
- A.Vessel
- B.Volta
- C.Victor✓
Q145. What is the proper phraseology for transmitting the number '10,000' feet in a standard radio communication?
- A.TEN THOUSAND
- B.ONE ZERO ZERO ZERO ZERO FEET
- C.ONE ZERO THOUSAND✓
Q146. What is the minimum required signal strength (readability) for a successful two-way radiotelephone communication in the aeronautical mobile service?
- A.Readability 1 (Unreadable)
- B.Readability 2 (Readable now and then)
- C.Readability 3 (Readable, but with difficulty)✓
Q147. In a situation involving a fire onboard the aircraft that is NOT immediately life-threatening but requires urgent action, which signal should the pilot transmit before the message?
- A.MAYDAY
- B.EMERGENCY
- C.PAN-PAN✓
Q148. If a ground station sends a message and receives no reply, what is the maximum number of times it may repeat the call sign of the station called, before giving the message 'TO ALL STATIONS'?
- A.Once
- B.Twice
- C.Three times✓
Q149. When an Air Traffic Control (ATC) unit needs to cancel a previously issued clearance, which proword should they use to introduce the cancellation?
- A.DISREGARD
- B.CANCEL✓
- C.NEGATIVE
Q150. What is the correct phraseology to indicate that the entire last message has been received and understood, and the instruction contained therein will be executed.
- A.ROGER
- B.AFFIRM
- C.WILCO✓
Q151. According to the standard readability scale used in aeronautical radio communication, which rating signifies 'Readable but with difficulty'?
- A.Readability 1
- B.Readability 2
- C.Readability 3✓
Q152. What time standard is mandatory for use in all aeronautical mobile service communications?
- A.Local Time, specified by the controlling station.
- B.Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), often referred to as 'Zulu' time.✓
- C.Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
Q153. Which procedural word (proword) is used by a radiotelephone operator to indicate that a separation is made between portions of a message?
- A.OVER
- B.BREAK✓
- C.STANDBY
Q154. What is the highest precedence category for a message transmitted in the aeronautical mobile service?
- A.Urgency messages, such as those concerning serious technical difficulties.
- B.Safety messages, such as those relating to important flight conditions.
- C.Distress messages, indicated by MAYDAY.✓
Q155. What is the primary characteristic of the spoken word 'ALL STATIONS' when preceding a transmission from an Air Traffic Control (ATC) unit?
- A.The message is of a confidential nature and only authorized personnel should should listen.
- B.The message is directed to all aircraft stations within the receiving range of of the frequency or unit.✓
- C.It is a request for a radio check from every aircraft on the frequency.
Q156. Which information is mandatory to be given to ATC for pushback and engine start?
- A.Route and cruising level
- B.Fuel on board
- C.Aircraft call sign, stand, request for pushback/engine start, ATIS✓
Q157. What is the correct order of priority in radiotelephony?
- A.Urgency → Distress → Flight safety
- B.Regularity → Meteorological → Distress
- C.Distress → Urgency → Flight safety → Meteorological → Regularity✓
Q158. What is the correct order of a visual circuit pattern?
- A.Downwind → Base → Crosswind → Final
- B.Upwind → Crosswind → Downwind → Base → Final✓
- C.Crosswind → Upwind → Final → Base
Q159. Which of the following positions are reported in a visual circuit?
- A.Taxi and holding point
- B.Initial and overhead
- C.Upwind, Crosswind, Downwind, Base, Final✓
Q160. How is the call sign “AIC 200” read on RT?
- A.Air India two zero zero✓
- B.Air India Two Hundred
- C.Air India two double zero
Q161. How much time before entering controlled airspace should clearance be requested?
- A.5 minutes
- B.10 minutes✓
- C.15 minutes
Q162. If transmitter power is increased four times, the range will
- A.Remain same
- B.Increase 4 times
- C.Double✓
Q163. What is the correct term meaning “I have received your transmission”?
- A.Wilco
- B.Affirm
- C.Roger✓
Q164. Which of the following is NOT an essential piece of information for a standard Position Report?
- A.Time over the reporting point.
- B.Position/Identification of the reporting point.
- C.Fuel on board in gallons.✓
Q165. Define the term Readability Code 3.
- A.Unreadable
- B.Readable now and then
- C.Readable, but with difficulty✓
Q166. How must the number '12,500' be spoken in radiotelephony?
- A.ONE TWO FIVE ZERO ZERO
- B.ONE TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED✓
- C.TWELVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
Q167. Which instruction from ATC must be read back by the pilot?
- A.Weather conditions (METAR).
- B.ATC route clearances.✓
- C.Advisory information.
Q168. What is the full phraseology for cancelling an urgent message if the situation has improved?
- A.PAN-PAN TERMINATED
- B.CANCELLING URGENCY✓
- C.PAN-PAN OVER
Q169. Under what condition is an aircraft permitted to use a shortened callsign?
- A.The aircraft initiates the shortening after the first successful contact.
- B.When the pilot deems the radio channel to be non-congested.
- C.After the ground station (ATC) has initiated the use of the shortened callsign.✓
Q170. If a message is classified as a Safety message, what does it primarily concern?
- A.The safety of the destination runway.
- B.The safety of navigation or the significant weather warnings.✓
- C.The regular operational movements of the aircraft.
Q171. What is the recommended maximum duration for a single transmission on the air?
- A.No more than 60 seconds.
- B.No more than 30 seconds.
- C.Only enough time to say the critical information.✓
Q172. Security — safeguarding civil aviation against unlawful interference is covered under—?
- A.Annex 12
- B.Annex 17✓
- C.Annex 19
Q173. Which ICAO Annex deals with the performance of distress monitoring, communication, coordination, and search and rescue?
- A.Annex 11
- B.Annex 12✓
- C.Annex 13
Q174. The primary function described—distress monitoring, coordination, and medical evacuation— falls under
- A.ATS services
- B.AIS services
- C.Search and Rescue (SAR) services✓
Q175. In SAR, distress communication involves
- A.Only VFR aircraft
- B.Handling and relaying distress messages from any aircraft in need of assistance✓
- C.Only communication between ATC units
Q176. The term "distress monitoring" refers to
- A.Monitoring runway lighting
- B.Monitoring ATIS broadcasts
- C.Monitoring and responding to distress alerts from aircraft✓
Q177. Which of the following is NOT an ELT distress frequency?
- A.121.5 MHz
- B.118.1 MHz✓
- C.406 MHz
Q178. Marine distress frequency associated with ELT-type beacons is
- A.3270 kHz
- B.2182 kHz✓
- C.1720 kHz
Q179. The distress signal 'MAYDAY' must be preceded by which alerting call?
- A.PAN-PAN (three times)
- B.MAYDAY RELAY (three times)
- C.MAYDAY (three times)✓
Q180. What is the primary action required by a pilot who hears an urgency call (PAN-PAN) on the frequency?
- A.Immediately change frequency to clear the channel.
- B.Continue routine transmission, as it is only an urgency call.
- C.Cease any transmission likely to interfere with the urgency communication.✓
Q181. The transmission of the distress message (MAYDAY message) should contain which three mandatory pieces of information, immediately after the distress signal?
- A.Aircraft color, number of people on board, and destination.
- B.Position, nature of distress, and pilot's name.
- C.Aircraft call sign, position, and nature of distress.✓
Q182. The distress signal MAYDAY, when spoken three times, indicates what level of urgency for the aircraft and its occupants?
- A.An urgent situation concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of
- B.The aircraft is experiencing a minor technical fault that requires attention but is
- C.The aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires✓
Q183. What does the urgency signal “PAN PAN” indicate?
- A.Immediate danger requiring assistance
- B.Safety of aircraft/person on board, not requiring immediate assistance✓
- C.Radio failure
Q184. What is the international distress frequency?
- A.123.45 MHz
- B.118.00 MHz
- C.121.5 MHz✓
Q185. What is the internationally recognized Distress signal?
- A.PAN-PAN (spoken three times)
- B.SECURITE (spoken three times)
- C.MAYDAY (spoken three times)✓
Q186. What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal?
- A.PAN-PAN (spoken three times)✓
- B.MAYDAY (spoken three times)
- C.EMERGENCY (spoken three times)
Q187. What action must an aircraft take immediately upon hearing the signal 'MAYDAY' on a frequency it is monitoring?
- A.Reply to the distressed aircraft to offer assistance.
- B.Cease all transmissions immediately and maintain a listening watch.✓
- C.Transmit "SEELONCE FEENEE" to clear the frequency.
Q188. Which are the two highest priority messages after Distress and Urgency calls?
- A.Movement and Safety.
- B.Meteorological and Regularity.
- C.Safety and Regularity.✓
Q189. What is the meaning of the phrase "SQUAWK 7700"?
- A.Radio Communication Failure
- B.Unlawful Interference
- C.General Emergency✓
Q190. What is the meaning of the phrase "SQUAWK 7600"?
- A.General Emergency
- B.Unlawful Interference
- C.Radio Communication Failure✓
Q191. ICAO is a specialized agency of which global organization?
- A.International Court of Justice
- B.World Trade Organization
- C.United Nations✓
Q192. CAR Section 2, Series ‘O’ specifically relates to—?
- A.Operating minima for airports
- B.Operational requirements for aircraft✓
- C.Cabin safety regulations
Q193. Aeronautical Charts are published as per specifications in—?
- A.Annex 4✓
- B.Annex 11
- C.Annex 15
Q194. Operational temperature range of an ELT is
- A.0°C to 40°C
- B.–20°C to +55°C✓
- C.–40°C to +80°C
Q195. In a METAR, the code VRB is used when
- A.Wind speed is more than 15 kt
- B.Wind direction cannot be determined✓
- C.Winds are calm
Q196. VRB appears in a METAR instead of wind direction when
- A.Surface wind is above 20 kt
- B.Wind is calm
- C.Wind direction fluctuates so much that no definite direction exists✓
Q197. A gust is defined as a sudden increase in wind speed lasting
- A.More than 5 minutes
- B.Less than one minute✓
- C.Exactly one minute
Q198. For a gust to be included in a METAR/TAF, it must be at least
- A.5 kt above mean wind
- B.8 kt above mean wind
- C.10 kt above mean wind✓
Q199. In METAR, how is a gust reported?
- A.Appended after visibility
- B.Shown as a separate line
- C.Added after mean wind speed with letter G✓
Q200. Example: METAR showing 12010G25KT indicates
- A.Wind from 120° at 25 kt
- B.Wind from 120° at 10 kt, gusting to 25 kt✓
- C.Wind variable between 10–25 kt
Q201. What is the standard phraseology for expressing visibility of 10 kilometers or more?
- A.VISIBILITY ONE ZERO KILOMETRES
- B.VISIBILITY ONE ZERO PLUS
- C.VISIBILITY TEN KILOMETRES OR MORE or VISIBILITY MORE THAN NINE✓
Q202. The Q-code QFE is used for setting the altimeter to read
- A.Altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).
- B.Pressure altitude (standard pressure 1013.2 hPa).
- C.Height above the aerodrome elevation (Zero on the ground at the field✓
Q203. Which procedural word (proword) is used by a ground station to indicate that the aircraft is authorized to proceed under the conditions specified?
- A.STANDBY
- B.CLEARED✓
- C.ROGER
Q204. What is the correct meaning of the Q-code QNH?
- A.The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation.
- B.The atmospheric pressure at mean sea level (MSL) used for setting the✓
- C.The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft.
Q205. What is the standard phraseology used by a mobile station to request the atmospheric pressure setting that will cause the altimeter to indicate elevation above the aerodrome reference point?
- A.REQUEST QNH
- B.REQUEST QFE✓
- C.REQUEST ELEVATION
Q206. ATC gives an altimeter setting of 1007. How is it read?
- A.One zero zero seven
- B.QNH one zero zero seven✓
- C.One thousand seven
Q207. The meaning of the abbreviation QNH is
- A.Altimeter setting to read height above the aerodrome.
- B.Altimeter setting to read height above Mean Sea Level (MSL).✓
- C.The standard pressure of 1013.2 hPa.
Q208. The meaning of the abbreviation QFE is
- A.Altimeter setting to read height above MSL.
- B.Standard atmospheric pressure setting.
- C.Altimeter setting to read zero when on the ground (height above aerodrome elevation).✓
Q209. What altimeter setting must be used when operating at or above the Transition Level (TL)?
- A.QFE
- B.QNH of the destination aerodrome
- C.The standard pressure setting (1013.2 hPa)✓
Q210. What is the full form of the abbreviation METAR and what information does it contain?
- A.Medium Terminal Advisory Report; forecast weather.
- B.Aviation Routine Weather Report; actual weather observation.✓
- C.Meteorological Terminal Area Report; general climate info.
Q211. Who grants Air Operator’s Certificates (AOC) to Indian carriers?
- A.BCAS
- B.AAI
- C.DGCA✓
Q212. Why is a single HF frequency NOT suitable for 24-hour aircraft communication?
- A.HF radios cannot operate continuously
- B.HF propagation varies due to day/night effects✓
- C.VHF interference blocks HF signals
Q213. Due to propagation problems on HF, aircraft are allotted—?
- A.Only one HF channel
- B.Two frequencies: Primary and Secondary✓
- C.Three frequencies for every phase of flight
Q214. The selection of primary and secondary HF frequencies depends mainly on—?
- A.Pilot’s preference
- B.Time of departure, nature of flight (domestic/international), and route/area of flight✓
- C.Colour of aircraft
Q215. The system that allows ground stations to alert crew without constant listening on HF is—?
- A.ADS-B
- B.SELCAL✓
- C.ELT
Q216. HF propagation issues requiring two frequencies are mainly caused by—?
- A.Airport congestion
- B.Rain and snow only
- C.Day and night variation in the ionosphere✓
Q217. HF is mainly used along with SELCAL because—?
- A.HF audio is extremely clear
- B.Continuous listening on HF is difficult due to static and noise✓
- C.HF requires no tuning
Q218. In long-range communication, the secondary HF frequency is used when—?
- A.The primary frequency is too busy
- B.Pilot requests music
- C.Propagation on the primary frequency is poor✓
Q219. The primary purpose of SELCAL in aircraft communication is to—?
- A.Improve HF signal strength
- B.Alert pilots without continuous radio monitoring✓
- C.Replace HF radios
Q220. SELCAL is mainly used to reduce pilot workload because—?
- A.HF is never used anymore
- B.Continuous monitoring of HF causes static noise and fatigue✓
- C.VHF is always unavailable
Q221. SELCAL is a system used for communication—?
- A.Aircraft-to-aircraft
- B.Ground-to-air only✓
- C.Satellite-to-air
Q222. In India, SELCAL signals are transmitted over—?
- A.VHF only
- B.HF and VHF
- C.HF only✓
Q223. A SELCAL code consists of—?
- A.Four digits
- B.Four letters✓
- C.Two letters and two numbers
Q224. SELCAL letters may include—?
- A.A to Z
- B.Only vowels
- C.A to S, excluding I, O, N✓
Q225. A valid SELCAL code must contain—?
- A.Repeated letters
- B.One pair of tones
- C.Two pairs of letters in ascending order✓
Q226. Which of the following SELCAL codes is correctly formed?
- A.BP CO
- B.AB CD✓
- C.GG HI
Q227. How long does a complete SELCAL transmission take?
- A.5 seconds
- B.Approximately 2.2 seconds✓
- C.10 seconds
Q228. The pause between the two SELCAL tone pairs is—?
- A.1 second
- B.0.2 seconds✓
- C.2 seconds
Q229. SELCAL cannot include repeated letters because—?
- A.HF cannot transmit repeating tones
- B.Each tone must be unique for identification✓
- C.ICAO does not allow consonants
Q230. A SELCAL code like “AD BC” is—?
- A.Incorrect because D is not allowed
- B.Incorrect because pairs must be alphabetical
- C.Correct, because both pairs are in ascending order✓
Q231. What happens in the cockpit when a valid SELCAL tone is received?
- A.HF becomes unreadable
- B.A light flashes or chime sounds to alert the crew✓
- C.VHF disconnects
Q232. SELCAL-32 was introduced mainly to—?
- A.Increase HF transmission power
- B.Reduce cockpit noise
- C.Increase the total number of available SELCAL codes✓
Q233. SELCAL-32 allows the use of which additional characters?
- A.W, X, Y only
- B.T to Z, and digits 1 to 9✓
- C.All letters A–Z including I and O
Q234. Traditional SELCAL used only letters from—?
- A.A to Z
- B.A to F
- C.A to S (excluding I, O, N)✓
Q235. SELCAL-32 increases the number of possible SELCAL combinations to—?
- A.10,000
- B.1 million
- C.More than 2 lakh unique codes✓
Q236. What appears in the cockpit when a SELCAL alert is received?
- A.Radio volume automatically increases
- B.A chime sounds and a SELCAL light illuminates✓
- C.The HF radio switches off
Q237. Where is the SELCAL controller located?
- A.In the avionics bay
- B.On the flight deck✓
- C.In the cabin
Q238. After the crew responds to a SELCAL alert, they must—?
- A.Change HF frequency
- B.Press the reset button to arm the system for the next call✓
- C.Switch to VHF communication
Q239. Why were digits 1–9 added in SELCAL-32?
- A.To simplify tone generation
- B.To greatly expand the number of assignable SELCAL codes✓
- C.To avoid confusion with Morse code
Q240. In SELCAL-32, which of the following is a valid component?
- A.Letter “O”
- B.Number “7”✓
- C.Letter “I”
Q241. What is the operational advantage of SELCAL for the flight crew?
- A.It eliminates the need for HF radios
- B.Crew do not need to continuously monitor HF manually✓
- C.It replaces CPDLC on oceanic routes
Q242. Which organization handles the worldwide registration of SELCAL codes?
- A.ICAO
- B.Aviation Spectrum Resources✓
- C.AAI
Q243. Registration of SELCAL codes with Aviation Spectrum Resources is—?
- A.Free of cost
- B.Included with aircraft registration
- C.A paid service✓
Q244. SELCAL codes are assigned to—?
- A.Aircraft operators
- B.Individual aircraft✓
- C.Flight crew members
Q245. In a flight plan, where is the SELCAL code entered?
- A.Item 15
- B.Item 10
- C.Item 18 using the “SEL/” indicator✓
Q246. The purpose of Aviation Spectrum Resources maintaining SELCAL registration is to—?
- A.Allocate HF frequencies
- B.Monitor ATC radio calls
- C.Ensure global uniqueness and avoid duplicate SELCAL codes✓
Q247. When is a SELCAL code typically registered for an operator?
- A.After every flight
- B.At the time of acquiring or adding aircraft to their fleet✓
- C.Before each departure
Q248. Why is SELCAL registration important?
- A.To increase aircraft MTOW
- B.To prevent two aircraft from having the same SELCAL tones✓
- C.To allow CPDLC operations
Q249. Utilization and protection of the aeronautical radio frequency spectrum is covered in which volume of Annex 10?
- A.Volume I
- B.Volume V✓
- C.Volume IV
Q250. Frequency allocation rules ensuring no harmful interference in aeronautical bands are described in which Annex 10 volume?
- A.Volume V✓
- B.Volume IV
- C.Volume I
Q251. Which frequency band is primarily used for long-distance, high-frequency (HF) aeronautical communications?
- A.VHF (Very High Frequency)
- B.UHF (Ultra High Frequency)
- C.HF (High Frequency)✓
Q252. What is the maximum effective communication range of standard VHF (Very High Frequency) air- ground communication, which is essentially line-of-sight?
- A.50 nautical miles (NM)
- B.Approximately 200 nautical miles (NM) at high altitudes.✓
- C.2,000 nautical miles (NM)
Q253. What is the correct phraseology ATC should use to instruct a pilot to change frequency from the current controlling agency to another?
- A.CHANGE TO NEW FREQUENCY
- B.REQUEST CONTACT
- C.CONTACT [CONTROL UNIT] [FREQUENCY]✓
Q254. If impedance is reduced, what happens to current?
- A.Decreases
- B.Becomes zero
- C.Increases✓
Q255. What is wavelength?
- A.Speed of wave
- B.Distance between two successive crests or troughs✓
- C.Number of cycles per second
Q256. What is frequency?
- A.Distance between waves
- B.Wave speed
- C.Number of cycles per second✓
Q257. What is the wavelength of a 300 MHz frequency?
- A.3 metres
- B.30 cm
- C.1 metre✓
Q258. What is the inter-pilot air-to-air communication frequency?
- A.121.5 MHz
- B.122.8 MHz
- C.123.45 MHz✓
Q259. What is the standard VHF Emergency Frequency?
- A.121.5 MHz✓
- B.123.45 MHz
- C.118.0 MHz
Q260. What is the correct phraseology for requesting permission to change frequency?
- A.REQUEST CHANGE TO [frequency/station].✓
- B.CLEARED TO CHANGE FREQUENCY.
- C.ROGER CHANGE FREQUENCY.
Q261. What is the primary purpose of Selective Calling (SELCAL)?
- A.To automatically select the best radio channel.
- B.To provide an alternate communication means during RCF.
- C.To alert a specific aircraft crew to an incoming radio call.✓
Q262. Which radio wave property allows HF to travel long distances?
- A.Line-of-sight propagation.
- B.Skywave reflection off the Ionosphere.✓
- C.Ground wave following the Earth's curvature.
Q263. Why is VHF communication primarily line-of-sight?
- A.The transmitter power is very low.
- B.VHF waves do not bend significantly around the Earth's curvature or reflect off the ionosphere.✓
- C.The frequency is too low.
Q264. What does the term 'Simplex' operation mean in radiotelephony?
- A.Two frequencies used simultaneously for both transmission and reception.
- B.A single frequency used for both transmission and reception, but only one station transmits at a time.✓
- C.The ability to transmit and receive simultaneously on a single frequency.
Q265. What type of modulation is used for standard VHF voice communication in aviation?
- A.Amplitude Modulation (AM).✓
- B.Frequency Modulation (FM).
- C.Single Sideband (SSB).
Q266. What is the function of the Squelch circuit in a radio receiver?
- A.To increase the volume of weak signals.
- B.To tune the receiver to the exact frequency.
- C.To suppress background receiver noise when no signal is present.✓
Q267. The relationship between Wavelength (\lambda) and Frequency (f) is defined by
- A.\lambda = f / c
- B.\lambda = f \times c
- C.\lambda = c / f (where c is the speed of light)✓
Q268. What is the primary advantage of using the Single Sideband (SSB) technique in HF communication?
- A.Superior clarity and audio fidelity.
- B.Elimination of all static and noise.
- C.Increased range and efficiency by reducing bandwidth and wasted power.✓
Q269. The process of separating the voice signal from the carrier wave in the receiver is called
- A.Modulation
- B.Demodulation✓
- C.Rectification
Q270. The most common radio wave propagation mode for VHF is
- A.Skywave.
- B.Surface wave.
- C.Direct/Line-of-sight.✓
Q271. The term 'Dead Zone' is a problem primarily associated with which frequency band?
- A.VHF
- B.UHF
- C.HF✓
Q272. The speed of a radio wave in a vacuum is approximately
- A.300 meters per second
- B.300 kilometers per second
- C.300,000 kilometers per second✓
Q273. What is the primary limitation of VHF (Very High Frequency) radio for long-distance communication?
- A.Susceptibility to sunspot activity.
- B.Limited frequency bandwidth.
- C.Line-of-sight propagation.✓
Q274. The process of modifying a high-frequency carrier wave with a low-frequency signal (voice) is called
- A.Demodulation
- B.Coupling
- C.Modulation✓
Q275. Which band of frequencies is most affected by the changes in the Ionosphere between day and night?
- A.VHF
- B.UHF
- C.HF✓
Q276. What is a Transceiver?
- A.A device that only transmits radio signals.
- B.A device that only receives radio signals.
- C.A unit combining a transmitter and a receiver.✓
Q277. In the formula for wavelength (\lambda) and frequency (f), \lambda = c/f, what does 'c' represent?
- A.Capacitance
- B.Speed of the aircraft
- C.Speed of light (radio wave)✓
Q278. The term 'Dead Zone' or 'Skip Zone' is associated with which type of radio wave propagation?
- A.Ground wave
- B.Line-of-sight
- C.Skywave (HF)✓
Q279. Which type of antenna is commonly used for VHF communication on aircraft?
- A.Long wire antenna
- B.Blade or whip antenna✓
- C.Loop antenna
Q280. What is the standard audio frequency range for human speech transmitted in radiotelephony?
- A.100 kHz to 300 kHz
- B.300 Hz to 3400 Hz✓
- C.10 kHz to 20 kHz
Q281. What does AM stand for in the context of radio modulation?
- A.Antenna Modulation
- B.Amplitude Modulation✓
- C.Analog Modulation
Q282. The main advantage of using HF SSB (Single Sideband) for long-range communication over traditional AM is
- A.Lower bandwidth and higher range for the same power.✓
- B.Higher fidelity and clearer audio.
- C.It is immune to lightning and atmospheric static.
Q283. In an aircraft's VHF radio system, the inter-communication system used for communication between the cockpit and the cabin is called the
- A.ATC Radio
- B.Interphone or Cabin Announcing System✓
- C.HF Radio
Q284. DGCA must align its rules and requirements with amendments made to what?
- A.Airport Authority manuals
- B.Airline SOPs
- C.ICAO Annexes✓
Q285. AAI provides which communication and navigation aids?
- A.SONAR, GPS, HF-SDR
- B.ILS, DVOR, DME, Radar✓
- C.GPWS, TCAS, ELT
Q286. Radio Navigational Aids such as VOR, DME, and ILS fall under which volume of Annex 10?
- A.Volume I✓
- B.Volume IV
- C.Volume V
Q287. Surveillance Radar and Collision Avoidance Systems (SSR, Mode S, TCAS) are included in which volume?
- A.Volume II
- B.Volume V
- C.Volume IV✓
Q288. Accuracy of modern 406 MHz ELT with GPS (NG ELT) is
- A.20 km
- B.5 km
- C.500 meters✓
Q289. In the event of a total communication failure (radio failure) on an IFR flight, the pilot should first set the transponder to which emergency code?
- A.7500
- B.7600✓
- C.7700
Q290. When a radiotelephone operator is told to 'STANDBY', what is the expected action?
- A.Immediately change frequency as instructed.
- B.End the transmission with 'OUT' and await further instructions.
- C.Wait for a short but unspecified period for a reply.✓
Q291. DME operates in which frequency band?
- A.VHF
- B.HF
- C.UHF✓
Q292. If experiencing RCF in IMC, the pilot should immediately set the transponder to which code?
- A.7700
- B.7600✓
- C.7500
Q293. What is the function of the Transponder in air traffic control?
- A.To transmit radio messages to ATC.
- B.To reply to ground radar interrogation with a code and altitude information.✓
- C.To receive all ATC instructions and display them digitally.
Q294. Who is responsible for issuing Certificates of Airworthiness in India?
- A.AAI
- B.MoCA
- C.DGCA✓
Q295. Which authority in India investigates civil aviation accidents and incidents?
- A.NTSB
- B.AAI
- C.Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB)✓
Q296. Who approves operator training programmes for carriage of dangerous goods?
- A.BCAS
- B.ICAO
- C.DGCA✓
Q297. Provision of passenger facilities and information systems at airports falls under which organization?
- A.DGCA
- B.BCAS
- C.AAI✓
Q298. Provision of Air Traffic Services (ATS) at airports under its jurisdiction is done by whom?
- A.DGCA
- B.Indian Air Force
- C.AAI✓
Q299. What is the primary purpose of an Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)?
- A.To provide meteorological updates to aircraft
- B.To define airspace where special communication and reporting procedures apply✓
- C.To regulate airport parking stands
Q300. How many ADIZ regions are designated in India?
- A.3
- B.4
- C.5✓
Q301. The Western ADIZ of India lies along which boundary?
- A.International border with Nepal
- B.International border with Pakistan✓
- C.LOC of China
Q302. The South ADIZ covers which airspace?
- A.Airspace over the Bay of Bengal
- B.Airspace over territorial waters of Lakshadweep Islands✓
- C.Airspace over the Rann of Kutch
Q303. Before entering an ADIZ from outside Indian FIR, aircraft must obtain ADC at least—?
- A.30 minutes prior to entry
- B.10 minutes prior to entering Indian airspace✓
- C.Only after entering the FIR
Q304. Which ADIZ lies along the Line of Control (LOC) with Pakistan and China?
- A.East ADIZ
- B.North ADIZ✓
- C.West ADIZ
Q305. Which ADIZ is a subordinate extension to the South ADIZ?
- A.East ADIZ
- B.Central ADIZ
- C.South-East ADIZ✓
Q306. ADC issued to an aircraft remains valid for—?
- A.Only the first FIR
- B.Only for the climb phase
- C.The entire route✓
Q307. The Central ADIZ corresponds to which international boundaries?
- A.Bangladesh border only
- B.Sri Lanka FIR boundary
- C.International border with Nepal and LOC of China✓
Q308. The Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) contains—?
- A.Radar service availability
- B.HF/MF communication schedules
- C.Current NOTAMs of operational significance✓
Q309. Which publication is issued by or with the authority of the State?
- A.AIP✓
- B.NOTAM
- C.AIRAC
Q310. If a change in airspace procedures is to be implemented, which system ensures pilots get advance notice?
- A.AIC
- B.PIB
- C.AIRAC✓
Q311. PIB is prepared—?
- A.After aircraft landing
- B.Before the flight✓
- C.Once every AIRAC cycle
Q312. An aerodrome is defined as—?
- A.Only a paved runway for aircraft operations
- B.A terminal building for passenger movement
- C.A defined area of land/water intended for arrival, departure, and surface movement of aircraft✓
Q313. Which statement correctly describes an aerodrome?
- A.It includes land only, not water
- B.It may include buildings, installations, and equipment✓
- C.It must have customs and immigration facilities
Q314. An airport is best described as—?
- A.Any open field used for emergency landings
- B.A landing/take-off area with runway and passenger facilities such as customs & immigration✓
- C.A location used only for helicopter operations
Q315. Which of the following is a key difference between an aerodrome and an airport?
- A.Airports allow military aircraft only
- B.Airports have additional facilities such as maintenance, terminal buildings, customs, and immigration✓
- C.Aerodromes must have more than one runway
Q316. Which of the following is true?
- A.All aerodromes are airports
- B.All airports are aerodromes, but not all aerodromes qualify as airports✓
- C.Aerodromes require mandatory customs facilities
Q317. Which area does the definition of aerodrome include?
- A.Only concrete or asphalt surfaces
- B.Land or water used for aircraft movements✓
- C.Only areas monitored by ATC
Q318. An airport must include—?
- A.Cargo handling only
- B.Runway + aerodrome facilities + passenger facilities (customs, immigration, terminal)✓
- C.ATC tower only
Q319. Meteorological Services for International Air Navigation is covered under—?
- A.Annex 4
- B.Annex 9
- C.Annex 3✓
Q320. Operation of Aircraft is covered under—?
- A.Annex 11
- B.Annex 6✓
- C.Annex 1
Q321. Airworthiness requirements for aircraft are contained in—?
- A.Annex 8✓
- B.Annex 6
- C.Annex 16
Q322. Facilitation (customs, immigration, passenger processing) is included in—?
- A.Annex 15
- B.Annex 9✓
- C.Annex 12
Q323. Aeronautical Telecommunications is covered under—?
- A.Annex 11
- B.Annex 10✓
- C.Annex 18
Q324. Search and Rescue (SAR) procedures are covered under—?
- A.Annex 12✓
- B.Annex 17
- C.Annex 18
Q325. Aircraft Accident & Incident Investigation is addressed in—?
- A.Annex 16
- B.Annex 13✓
- C.Annex 14
Q326. Environmental protection requirements are detailed in—?
- A.Annex 8
- B.Annex 16✓
- C.Annex 6
Q327. The safe transport of dangerous goods by air is covered in—?
- A.Annex 10
- B.Annex 18✓
- C.Annex 3
Q328. Safety Management System (SMS) is part of—?
- A.Annex 2
- B.Annex 11
- C.Annex 19✓
Q329. In India, IFR and VFR flights are permitted in which airspace classes?
- A.Only Class D and E
- B.Only Class C
- C.All airspace classes✓
Q330. Class C airspace in India provides which type of separation?
- A.IFR–IFR only
- B.IFR–IFR & IFR–VFR separation✓
- C.IFR receives only traffic information
Q331. Class D airspace in India is typically associated with which areas?
- A.Only ATS routes
- B.CTAs, TMAs, CTZs, and ATZs✓
- C.FIR only
Q332. What services are provided in Class D airspace?
- A.IFR receives no separation
- B.IFR–IFR separation; IFR–VFR traffic information✓
- C.Only flight information service
Q333. Class E airspace in India generally applies to
- A.Inside CTAs and TMAs
- B.ATS routes outside CTAs and TMAs✓
- C.Military restricted airspace
Q334. What ATC service does Class E airspace provide?
- A.No service to any flight
- B.Service only to VFR
- C.ATC service to IFR; traffic information to all flights✓
Q335. Class F airspace in India provides which service to IFR flights?
- A.Full ATC separation
- B.Advisory service✓
- C.Only alerting service
Q336. In Class F airspace, what service is provided to all aircraft upon request?
- A.Radar vectors
- B.FIS (Flight Information Service)✓
- C.Procedural separation
Q337. Class G airspace in India is defined as
- A.Controlled airspace with VFR restrictions
- B.Standby-only airspace
- C.Uncontrolled airspace (other than D, E, and F)✓
Q338. In Class G airspace, what service is provided?
- A.Full ATC service
- B.FIS to all aircraft✓
- C.No services at all
Q339. Which type of airspace in India does NOT permit flight under any circumstance?
- A.Restricted Area
- B.Danger Area
- C.Prohibited Area✓
Q340. A Prohibited Area in India is identified using which format?
- A.FIR + (R) + Number
- B.FIR + (D) + Number
- C.FIR + (P) + Number✓
Q341. VA(P)-2 refers to which of the following?
- A.Danger Area No. 2 in Delhi FIR
- B.Prohibited Area No. 2 in Mumbai FIR✓
- C.Restricted Area No. 2 in Mumbai FIR
Q342. Which statement correctly describes a Restricted Area?
- A.Flights are always allowed without clearance.
- B.Flights are allowed but with restrictions as notified.✓
- C.Flights are never allowed.
Q343. Restricted Areas in India are marked with which letter?
- A.D
- B.R✓
- C.P
Q344. VO(R)-81 indicates which of the following?
- A.Danger Area No. 81 in Chennai FIR
- B.Restricted Area No. 81 in Chennai FIR✓
- C.Prohibited Area No. 81 in Chennai FIR
Q345. A Danger Area contains what type of activity?
- A.ATC training
- B.Activities dangerous to aircraft operations✓
- C.VIP movement only
Q346. When must aircraft avoid a Danger Area?
- A.At all times
- B.Never
- C.When the area is active, as notified by NOTAM✓
Q347. VE(D)-72 refers to what?
- A.Restricted Area in Kolkata FIR
- B.Prohibited Area in Kolkata FIR
- C.Danger Area No. 72 in Kolkata FIR✓
Q348. What is the purpose of designating a Danger Area?
- A.To legally ban all flights permanently
- B.To allow only military aircraft
- C.To caution pilots to avoid the area during active dangerous activities✓
Q349. SAR operations may use which types of resources?
- A.Only government aircraft
- B.Only military ships
- C.Public and private resources including aircraft, vessels, and installations✓
Q350. Initial medical assistance during SAR operations is provided
- A.Only after aircraft reaches the nearest airport
- B.As part of SAR functions during rescue operations✓
- C.Only by licensed doctors onboard aircraft
Q351. Medical evacuation under SAR refers to
- A.Transporting cargo from accident sites
- B.Transporting airline crew only
- C.Transporting injured persons to appropriate medical facilities✓
Q352. SAR services may cooperate with which of the following?
- A.Only local police
- B.Only airport operator
- C.Any cooperating aircraft, vessels, or installations✓
Q353. Coordination in SAR operations ensures
- A.Only weather briefings are sent
- B.Efficient use of resources to assist aircraft in distress✓
- C.Only NOTAM issuance
Q354. Search and rescue services are established primarily to ensure
- A.Cargo movement efficiency
- B.Safety of aircraft and people in distress situations✓
- C.Compliance with customs procedures
Q355. What is the primary purpose of an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
- A.To record flight data
- B.To broadcast distinctive distress signals on designated frequencies✓
- C.To measure altitude
Q356. ELT can be activated
- A.Only manually
- B.Only automatically
- C.Automatically by impact or manually by crew✓
Q357. The ELT is generally located in which part of the aircraft?
- A.Cockpit
- B.Fuel tank area
- C.Tail section✓
Q358. The ELT cockpit control panel has which 3 positions?
- A.ON, STBY, TEST
- B.AUTO, TEST, FAIL
- C.ON, ARM, OFF✓
Q359. At what impact force does the ELT automatically activate?
- A.1–2 g
- B.5–7 g✓
- C.10–12 g
Q360. ELT is required to undergo maintenance at what interval?
- A.Every 3 months
- B.Every 6 months
- C.Once every 12 months✓
Q361. Accuracy of ELT on 121.5 / 243 MHz frequencies is
- A.1 km
- B.20 km✓
- C.100 m
Q362. Accuracy of a 406 MHz ELT is approximately
- A.50 km
- B.5 km✓
- C.1 km
Q363. Indian-registered ELTs begin with which identification code?
- A.406
- B.315
- C.419✓
Q364. What is the main function of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)?
- A.Record flight data
- B.Record radar information
- C.Record audio to and from flight crew✓
Q365. How many channels of audio does a CVR record?
- A.2
- B.3
- C.4✓
Q366. Which of the following is not a CVR audio channel?
- A.Pilot
- B.Co-pilot
- C.Cabin crew✓
Q367. CVR recording duration is
- A.10 or 25 hours
- B.2 hours or 25 hours✓
- C.5 hours
Q368. What is the colour of the CVR?
- A.Black
- B.Blue
- C.International orange or yellow✓
Q369. Why is the CVR mounted in the tail section of the aircraft?
- A.Convenience
- B.To reduce wiring
- C.To minimise damage in case of crash✓
Q370. What is the main function of the Flight Data Recorder (FDR)?
- A.Record cockpit conversations
- B.Record aircraft parameters during entire flight✓
- C.Display weather data
Q371. FDR is used for
- A.Entertainment
- B.Accident investigation & trend analysis✓
- C.Cabin announcements
Q372. The FDR records
- A.Last 30 minutes
- B.Last 2 hours
- C.Last 10 or 25 hours✓
Q373. FDR stores data on
- A.Magnetic tape
- B.Digital storage device✓
- C.Paper strip
Q374. What is the colour of the FDR?
- A.Black
- B.International orange or yellow (with reflective tape)✓
- C.Grey
Q375. Where is the FDR located in most aircraft?
- A.Nose section
- B.Wing
- C.Rear of aircraft, usually under the fin✓
Q376. What is attached to the front of the FDR unit?
- A.ELT
- B.Anti-collision light
- C.Underwater Locating Device (ULD)✓
Q377. What is the purpose of the ULD?
- A.Detect weather
- B.Emit underwater pings to help locate CVR/FDR✓
- C.Display flight speed
Q378. Small aircraft may have CVR and FDR
- A.Removed completely
- B.Combined into one unit✓
- C.Installed on wings
Q379. What does the term INCERFA refer to?
- A.A situation requiring immediate assistance
- B.Uncertainty exists regarding the safety of an aircraft✓
- C.Aircraft under unlawful interference
Q380. What is ALERFA?
- A.A situation where apprehension exists about the safety of an aircraft✓
- B.Aircraft known to be safe
- C.Aircraft has crashed
Q381. Which example corresponds to ALERFA?
- A.No communication for 30 minutes
- B.Aircraft in circuit fails to land within 5 minutes of expected landing time✓
- C.Aircraft is confirmed missing
Q382. Which condition also leads to ALERFA?
- A.Severe turbulence
- B.Engine failure
- C.Aircraft is known or believed to be under unlawful interference✓
Q383. What is DETRESFA?
- A.A minor technical problem
- B.Reasonable certainty that aircraft and occupants face grave and imminent danger✓
- C.Loss of radar contact for 5 minutes
Q384. Which of the following is a DETRESFA indication?
- A.Aircraft known to be under hijack
- B.Failure to make communication and aircraft efficiency is impaired✓
- C.RT failure but aircraft is maintaining normal flight
Q385. Which phase is most serious?
- A.INCERFA
- B.ALERFA
- C.DETRESFA✓
Q386. Arrange the phases in increasing order of seriousness
- A.DETRESFA → INCERFA → ALERFA
- B.INCERFA → ALERFA → DETRESFA✓
- C.ALERFA → INCERFA → DETRESFA
Q387. In “VOHS”, what does the “O” represent?
- A.Operational status
- B.Chennai FIR✓
- C.Hyderabad station
Q388. India lies in which Aeronautical Fixed Service Routing Area (AFSRA) zone?
- A.C
- B.V✓
- C.Z
Q389. Which of the following letters are not used as the first letter of AFSRA zones?
- A.C, M, P
- B.I, J, Q, X✓
- C.A, B, D
Q390. How many AFSRA zones exist worldwide?
- A.10
- B.15
- C.22✓
Q391. The atmosphere is defined as
- A.A layer of gases only above 50,000 ft
- B.A spheroidal gaseous envelope surrounding a heavenly body✓
- C.A thick layer of clouds around Earth
Q392. Atmospheric pressure is
- A.Mass per unit volume
- B.Weight of air per cubic meter
- C.Force per unit area exerted by the atmosphere✓
Q393. Atmospheric pressure decreases with height because
- A.Temperature increases with height
- B.There is less air above as altitude increases✓
- C.Humidity increases with height
Q394. Density is defined as
- A.Force per unit area
- B.Mass per unit volume✓
- C.Temperature per unit height
Q395. Air density decreases when
- A.Temperature decreases
- B.Humidity decreases
- C.Temperature increases✓
Q396. Humidity refers to
- A.Pressure in unit volume
- B.Temperature in unit mass
- C.Weight of water vapour in a unit volume of air✓
Q397. Air with high humidity has
- A.Higher density
- B.Lower density✓
- C.No effect on density
Q398. Which of the following affects air density?
- A.Pressure
- B.Temperature
- C.All of the above✓
Q399. Gusting is typically a result of
- A.Temperature difference only
- B.Sudden local turbulence or surface friction✓
- C.High humidity only
Q400. Which Q-code is used by the aircraft to ask the ground station: "What is my true bearing from you?"?
- A.QDM
- B.QTE✓
- C.QDR
Q401. Which procedural word is used to request permission for the intended action?
- A.REQUEST✓
- B.CLEARED
- C.PERMIT
Q402. The proword 'I SAY AGAIN' should be used when
- A.The message being sent is extremely important.
- B.The sender is repeating a specific part of the message for clarity.✓
- C.The receiving station requested a repeat using 'SAY AGAIN'.
Q403. Which of the following is the correct radiotelephony procedure for establishing initial contact with an ATC unit?
- A.Aircraft call sign, followed by the ground station call sign and current altitude.
- B.Ground station call sign, followed by the aircraft call sign, then position,✓
- C.Aircraft call sign only, followed by 'CHECKING IN'.
Q404. If a pilot has been instructed to 'REPORT PASSING [FIX]', what is the primary purpose of this instruction?
- A.To notify the controller that the aircraft is performing a holding procedure.
- B.To request permission to proceed to the next waypoint.
- C.To allow the controller to confirm the aircraft's position and verify the✓
Q405. What Q-code is used to request the magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft?
- A.QDM
- B.QDR✓
- C.QTE
Q406. If an ATC unit transmits 'SAY AGAIN', what is the pilot being requested to do?
- A.Change the transmitting frequency.
- B.Repeat all or part of the message.✓
- C.Speak slower and more clearly.
Q407. What is the SI unit of mass?
- A.Gram
- B.Pound
- C.Kilogram✓
Q408. Traffic information reported by aircraft is acknowledged when
- A.Always
- B.Requested by ATC
- C.Collision risk exists✓
Q409. What is the correct response to “Report FL 60”?
- A.FL 60
- B.Wilco✓
- C.Roger, reporting flight level six zero
Q410. What is the aerodrome control service called?
- A.Mumbai Ground
- B.Mumbai Dispatch
- C.Mumbai Tower✓
Q411. How is 108.1 read in radiotelephony?
- A.One zero eight point one
- B.One hundred eight decimal one
- C.One zero eight decimal one✓
Q412. What does FM stand for?
- A.Field Modulation
- B.Fast Modulation
- C.Frequency Modulation✓
Q413. What must an aircraft do if it experiences a complete Radio Communication Failure (RCF) under IFR in VMC?
- A.Climb to the highest minimum safe altitude.
- B.Continue the flight in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report by phone.✓
- C.Proceed according to the last received clearance under IFR rules.
Q414. When setting up a radio, what step must be taken before speaking into the microphone?
- A.Depress the transmit switch fully and pause briefly before speaking✓
- B.Wait 5 seconds after keying to allow the transmitter to stabilize.
- C.Check the volume level.
Q415. When two stations use two different frequencies for simultaneous two-way communication, this is known as
- A.Simplex
- B.Half Duplex
- C.Full Duplex✓
Q416. The electrical unit for measuring the rate of flow of current is the
- A.Volt
- B.Ohm
- C.Ampere✓
Q417. What is the main purpose of an Automatic Voice Announcing System (AVAS) at an aerodrome?
- A.To automatically provide ATC clearances to pilots.
- B.To broadcast the ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) message.✓
- C.To automatically acknowledge all pilot transmissions.