Air Traffic ServicesAir Regulations — DGCA CPL practice questions
Question 1 of 116
Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a medium aircraft is:
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Air Regulations · DGCA CPL. The correct option is marked on each.
Q1. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a medium aircraft is:
- A.2 minutes✓
- B.3 minutes
- C.5 minutes
- D.Non of the above
Why: Two minutes. The departing minimum applies to a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY, and to a LIGHT taking off behind a MEDIUM — the same two minutes in each case. It is conditional on the runway geometry, and that is the part worth learning: it applies when the aircraft use the same runway, parallel runways separated by less than 760 m (2 500 ft), or crossing runways where the second aircraft's projected path will cross the first's at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft) below. Know the category boundaries too, because a question can hinge on them: HEAVY is 136 000 kg or more, MEDIUM is less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg, and LIGHT is 7 000 kg or less — all on maximum certificated take-off mass. The three-minute figure that appears as a distractor is real, but it belongs to the arrival case, not departure. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.8.3.1
Q2. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy aircraft is
- A.2 minutes
- B.3 minutes
- C.5 minutes
- D.not required✓
Why: There is no time-based wake turbulence minimum for this pairing, and the reason is that the rule only protects an aircraft from something heavier than itself. The arrival minima are stated as exactly two cases: a MEDIUM behind a HEAVY gets 2 minutes, and a LIGHT behind a HEAVY or a MEDIUM gets 3 minutes. HEAVY behind HEAVY appears in neither, so no wake turbulence separation is prescribed — the following aircraft is as capable of handling the vortex as the one that made it. The same logic explains the other silences in the table: MEDIUM behind MEDIUM and LIGHT behind LIGHT are not listed either. Not prescribed is not the same as no hazard. Where separation is not applied the controller still issues a caution of possible wake turbulence, and the pilot-in-command remains responsible for judging whether the spacing behind a heavier aircraft is acceptable — and for asking for more if it is not. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.8.2.1.1
Q3. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when
- A.Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet✓
- B.Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
- C.Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
- D.Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Why: Annex 2 4.2 says a VFR flight shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter its traffic zone or pattern, when the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 ft) or the ground visibility is less than 5 km — "except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit". That clearance is what a Special VFR authorisation is. So Special VFR is precisely the mechanism for operating below those two figures, which is why they are the numbers in the answer. Note both are triggers: either one falling below its limit is enough. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, 4.2
Q4. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
- A.light, quartering headwind
- B.light, quartering tailwind✓
- C.Strong headwind
- D.strong tailwind
Q5. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad day light, when aircraft are flown.:
- A.At or above F150.✓
- B.Within controlled airspace.
- C.At or above F 200.
- D.In designated areas or designated routes.
Q6. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000’ in a controlled airspace
- A.5 kms✓
- B.8 kms
- C.10 kms
- D.3 kms
Why: Controlled airspace means Class A to E, and in every one of those the VMC flight visibility is 5 km, at every altitude below 10 000 ft. The figure only changes at 10 000 ft AMSL, where it goes up to 8 km. The trap in this question is the phrase "at or below 3000 ft" — that band DOES have a relaxation, but only in Classes F and G, where you may fly clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. Inside controlled airspace there is no such relaxation, so 5 km stands. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Table 3-1 (see 4.1)
Q7. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
- A.8000 meters
- B.5000 meters✓
- C.1500 meters
- D.There is no minimum
Why: 5000 ft AMSL puts you in the middle band — below 10 000 ft but above 3000 ft — and there the requirement is 5 km, which is 5000 m, in every airspace class including G. The words "in sight of the surface" and the speed are there to pull you toward the bottom band, where Class F and G aircraft may fly clear of cloud with the surface in sight. That concession belongs to the band at or below 3000 ft AMSL (or 1000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher). At 5000 ft you are above it, so the full 5 km applies. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Table 3-1 (see 4.1)
Q8. Position report shall be made after every _______, where no standard reporting points exist .
- A.15 Mins
- B.20 Mins
- C.first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins✓
- D.60 Mins
Why: The rule is deliberately asymmetric, which is why the single-interval options are all wrong. On routes **not** defined by designated significant points, position reports are made as soon as possible after the first half hour of flight, and at hourly intervals after that. The early first report exists to confirm the flight is where it planned to be while the error is still small; once that is established, hourly is enough. Contrast the other case: on routes that **are** defined by designated significant points, you report over — or as soon as possible after — each compulsory reporting point, with no clock involved at all. In both cases ATS may ask for additional reports at shorter intervals, and may exempt a flight from routine reports altogether where it already has adequate position data from radar, ADS-B or ADS-C. Reference: PANS-ATM 4.11.1.2
Q9. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in same direction is
- A.10 NM
- B.20 NM✓
- C.15 NM
- D.5 NM
Why: 37 km — 20 NM — for aircraft on the same track, provided both are using the same on-track DME station (or an equivalent GNSS waypoint arrangement) and the separation is checked by simultaneous readings at frequent intervals. There is a 10 NM version in 5.4.2.3.3.1 b), but it is conditional: the leading aircraft must be maintaining a true airspeed at least 20 kt faster than the one behind. With no speed differential stated, 20 NM is the figure. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.4.2.3.3.1 a)
Q10. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for “straight in “approach. Because of low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
- A.of the pilot.✓
- B.of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction .
- C.of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance .
- D.Shared equally by the pilot and the controller.
Why: A Special VFR clearance separates you from other traffic. It does not separate you from the ground or from anything standing on it. Annex 2 2.3.1 is unambiguous: the pilot-in-command is responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the rules of the air, whether manipulating the controls or not. Obstacle clearance under VFR — special or otherwise — stays with the pilot, because VFR is by definition flown by visual reference. This is the distinction to hold on to: a clearance is permission to enter airspace, never a guarantee about terrain. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, 2.3.1
Q11. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 ‘MSL.
- A.Provided flight visibility is 1500 m.
- B.Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
- C.Provided flight visibility is 5000 m.✓
- D.Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.
Why: Between 3000 ft and 10 000 ft AMSL the flight visibility minimum is 5 km — 5000 m — and it is the same in every class from A to G. Class F buys you nothing extra here. The relaxations Class F and G enjoy (clear of cloud, in sight of the surface, and a possible reduction to 1500 m where the ATS authority prescribes it) all live in the band at or below 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Table 3-1 (see 4.1)
Q12. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft requires a wake vortex separation of :
- A.2 minutes
- B.8 minutes
- C.3nm
- D.3 minutes✓
Why: Three minutes, and the reason is the intermediate start. From the same take-off position the minimum is 2 minutes (5.8.3.1), but a lighter aircraft beginning its roll from an intermediate point on the runway starts INSIDE the region where the heavy aircraft's vortices were generated, and it lifts off further along than the heavy did. It therefore needs a full extra minute. The same 3 minutes applies to an intermediate start on a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.8.3.2 a)
Q13. EAT is the time that an aircraft :
- A.Is expected to join the field
- B.Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach✓
- C.Is expected to land
- D.Is expected to leave the last en-route holding point before destination
Why: Expected approach time is defined as the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing. Two traps sit in the other options. EAT is not the landing time — the approach still has to be flown after it. And the definition attaches to the holding fix, so it only has meaning when a delay and a hold exist; the note to the definition adds that the actual time of leaving the fix depends on the approach clearance. Reference: PANS-ATM, Chapter 1 — Definitions, "Expected approach time"
Q14. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is:
- A.3nm
- B.5nm✓
- C.10nm
- D.8nm
Why: 9.3 km — 5.0 NM — is the standard horizontal separation minimum based on radar or ADS-B. It can be reduced where the ATS authority prescribes it, but not below 3.0 NM in general, and not below 2.5 NM between succeeding aircraft on the same final approach track within 10 NM of the runway end, which itself carries a list of conditions about runway occupancy time, braking action and radar update rate. Unless the question gives you one of those situations, 5 NM is the answer. Reference: PANS-ATM 8.7.3.1
Q15. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirement s for VFR flight, at 6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
- A.1.5 Km visibility; clear of clouds
- B.10000 feet MSL, if above 10000 feet AGL.
- C.5 Km visibility; and 1000 feet below.✓
Why: 6500 ft AMSL is the middle band, so the answer is 5 km flight visibility with the standard cloud clearance: 1500 m horizontally and 300 m — that is 1000 ft — vertically. Learn the cloud distances as one pair, because they do not change anywhere in the table above 3000 ft: 1500 m and 1000 ft, whatever the class and whatever the altitude, right up to and including the 8 km band above 10 000 ft. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Table 3-1 (see 4.1)
Q16. When landing behind a large jet aircraft ,at which point on the runway should you plan to land ?
- A.If any crosswind ,land on the windward side of the runaway and prior to the jet’s touchdown point .
- B.At least 1000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point .
- C.Beyond the jet’s touchdown point .✓
Q17. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air
- A.dissipates immediately
- B.dissipates rapidly .
- C.May persist for two minutes or more✓
- D.persists indefinitely.
Q18. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is
- A.Heavy, landing configuration and slow speed
- B.Heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.✓
- C.Light, clean configuration and high speed.
- D.Heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.
Q19. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time ?
- A.Direct headwind
- B.Direct tailwind
- C.Light quartering tailwind✓
Q20. During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip vortices will
- A.Dissipate completely
- B.dissipate rapidly
- C.dissipate slowly✓
- D.remain at cruising altitude
Q21. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off ?
- A.Could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime✓
- B.Would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices
- C.Would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices
- D.Would not affect the lateral movement of the vortices
Q22. In class A airspace
- A.All flights are permitted.
- B.Only VFR flights are permitted.
- C.Only IFR flights are permitted.✓
- D.SPL VFR flights are permitted.
Q23. In class D air space
- A.IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
- B.IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR flights
- C.VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights
- D.all are correct✓
Q24. Position report is required to be given when
- A.crossing an FIR
- B.over a compulsory reporting point
- C.if so required by ATC
- D.all are correct✓
Why: All three are required. 4.11.1.1 requires a report over, or as soon as possible after passing, each designated compulsory reporting point, and adds that additional reports over other points may be requested by the ATS unit. 4.11.1.4 requires that where prescribed or requested, the last position report before passing from one FIR or control area into an adjacent one is made to the unit serving the airspace about to be entered. So the compulsory point, the FIR boundary and an ATC request are each a trigger in their own right. Reference: PANS-ATM 4.11.1.1 and 4.11.1.4
Q25. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over . The altimeter reads 12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of:
- A.12000’ Altitude g.l.
- B.F 120✓
- C.12000’
- D.12000’ amsl
Q26. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his license for endorsement on his licence
- A.With in 5 nm of an aerodrome
- B.With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome✓
- C.Any where
- D.Cannot fly
Q27. The designators for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
- A.White
- B.Red & Green
- C.Red, Green, Blue & Amber
- D.Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White✓
Q28. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in ?
- A.Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas
- B.Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control areas.
- C.Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs✓
- D.Class G Airspace is applicable to airspaces other than D,E and F
Q29. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported as:
- A.An accident
- B.An incident✓
- C.Not reportable
- D.An Airport
Q30. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
- A.may continue taxiing
- B.should not cross the lines without ATC clearance✓
- C.should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
- D.continue taxiing if runway is vacant
Q31. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
- A.operating at high airspeeds
- B.heavily loaded
- C.Developing lift✓
- D.taxiing fast
Q32. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
- A.sink below the aircraft generating turbulence✓
- B.rise into the traffic pattern
- C.rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
- D.rise towards the engines of the aircraft
Q33. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
- A.Inward, upward, and around each tip
- B.Inward, upward and counterclockwise
- C.Outward, upward, and around each tip✓
- D.Outward, upward and away from each tip
Q34. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
- A.rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
- B.rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
- C.Sink into the flight path of aircraft generating the turbulence✓
- D.Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions
Q35. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
- A.light, dirty and fast
- B.heavy, dirty and fast
- C.Heavy, clean and slow✓
- D.light, clean and slow
Q36. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
- A.below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
- B.above and upwind from the heavy aircraft✓
- C.below and upwind from the heavy aircraft
- D.above and downwind from the heavy aircraft
Q37. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
- A.Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point✓
- B.Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s Touchdown point
- C.Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point
Q38. Crossing of an ATS route should be at angle of:
- A.60º
- B.90º✓
- C.45º
- D.30º
Why: 90 degrees, as nearly as possible. PANS-ATM states this for IFR flights intending to cross an advisory route: cross as near to a right angle as you can, and at a level appropriate to your track taken from the cruising-level tables for IFR flights outside controlled airspace. The reason is exposure time — a perpendicular crossing puts you inside the route's protected airspace for the shortest possible period, and it makes your intention obvious to anyone else using the route. A shallow crossing angle keeps you in conflict for far longer. Reference: PANS-ATM 9.1.4.2.2.2
Q39. Control Zone is from
- A.Surface of earth to a specified upper limit✓
- B.5000’ to unlimited
- C.Atleast 700’
- D.None of the above
Why: A control zone is controlled airspace extending upwards FROM THE SURFACE of the earth to a specified upper limit. That first phrase is the whole distinction: a control ZONE starts at the ground, a control AREA starts at some specified limit above it. If you can only remember one thing about the pair, remember that the zone touches the ground — which is why it is the airspace that surrounds an aerodrome and why VFR arrivals and departures there need a clearance. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Definitions (also PANS-ATM Chapter 1)
Q40. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day by
- A.Switching on/off Nav lights
- B.Rocking Wings✓
- C.Flickering Anti-collision lights
- D.Flying low
Q41. In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR traffic, but relies on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from all other traffic?
- A.Class B
- B.Class C
- C.Class D✓
- D.Class E
Q42. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
- A.1500 meters✓
- B.1800 meters
- C.No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
- D.No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.
Q43. When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall
- A.back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off .
- B.Taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.
- C.Taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.✓
- D.Complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.
Q44. Longitudinal separation between two A/C on same track is _____ min
- A.10
- B.15✓
- C.20
- D.5
Why: 15 minutes is the baseline time-based longitudinal minimum for aircraft on the same track at the same level. The other figures in that paragraph are all reductions you must earn: 10 minutes where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, 5 minutes where the leading aircraft is 20 kt or more faster in TAS and the pair meet one of three listed cases, and 3 minutes where that speed advantage is 40 kt or more. With no such condition given, answer 15. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.4.2.2.1.1 a)
Q45. VOR Track separation is _______
- A.15º at 30 NMs
- B.15º at 20 NMs
- C.15º at 15 NMs✓
- D.15º at 10 NMs
Why: Lateral separation using a VOR exists when both aircraft are established on radials diverging by at least 15 degrees and at least one of them is 28 km — 15 NM — or more from the facility. Learn the set together, because the exam moves between them: VOR 15 degrees, NDB 30 degrees, dead reckoning 45 degrees, and the distance is 15 NM in all three cases. The angle grows as the navigation aid gets less precise, which is the logic worth remembering rather than three separate numbers. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.4.1.2.1.2 a)
Q46. In separation between IFR and IFR is provided in ______ class of Airspace.
- A.B✓
- B.A & B
- C.D& E
- D.D, E,F & G
Q47. Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence?
- A.Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind. ,
- B.Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion. ,
- C.Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight. is correct.
- D.Response✓
Q48. Wake turbulence is produced by
- A.Heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.
- B.turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
- C.Fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.
- D.All fixed and rotary wing aircraft.✓
Q49. If an aircraft in circuit has R/T failure then the visual indication by pilot to acknowledge ATC signals is:
- A.Rock ailerons
- B.Circle over aerodrome
- C.Rock wings✓
- D.land
Q50. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in some direction is
- A.10 NM
- B.20 NM✓
- C.15 NM
- D.5 NM
Why: The same rule as the previous question, with a typo in the stem — read it as "same direction". 20 NM (37 km) on the same track, both aircraft referenced to the same on-track DME station, checked by simultaneous readings. The reduced 10 NM minimum applies only when the leading aircraft is 20 kt or more faster in true airspeed than the following one. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.4.2.3.3.1 a)
Q51. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at _____ angles to the route.
- A.70º
- B.110º
- C.90º✓
- D.45º
Why: Right angles — 90 degrees, or as close to it as circumstances allow. The provision in PANS-ATM is written for IFR flights crossing an advisory route, and it pairs the angle with a level requirement: use a cruising level appropriate to your track from the tables for IFR flights outside controlled airspace. Angle and level go together, because crossing quickly at the wrong level is no safer than crossing slowly at the right one. Reference: PANS-ATM 9.1.4.2.2.2
Q52. Within controlled airspace below 3000’ feet, visibility reqd. for VFR is
- A.3000 mts
- B.5000 mts✓
- C.3700 mts
- D.1500 mts
Why: Same rule as above, written in metres: 5 km is 5000 m. Controlled airspace is Classes A to E, and the VMC flight visibility for all of them below 10 000 ft is 5 km regardless of how low you are. The 1500 m figure that appears in the footnotes to Table 3-1 is a reduction the ATS authority MAY prescribe, and only for Class F and G operations at low speed or in low-traffic areas — never inside controlled airspace. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Table 3-1 (see 4.1)
Q53. On X-country flight where reporting points are not available then reporting shall be made after every ________ min in.
- A.15 mins
- B.30 mins
- C.45 mins
- D.first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins✓
Why: On routes NOT defined by designated significant points, position reports are made as soon as possible after the first half hour of flight and at hourly intervals thereafter. So the pattern is 30 minutes, then every 60 — not a single repeating interval, which is what the other options offer. The ATS unit may ask for additional reports at shorter intervals, but that is a request, not the standing rule. Reference: PANS-ATM 4.11.1.2
Q54. The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft encountering them to
- A.Go out of control
- B.Continue descent even when maximum power is applied.
- C.Sustain structural damages
- D.Experience any of the above situations.✓
Q55. Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins
- A.Before rotation
- B.With rotation.✓
- C.After becoming airborne.
- D.With full power application.
Q56. Two aircraft are on approach to land, the following aircraft shall:
- A.Climb.✓
- B.Descend.
- C.Alter heading to the right.
- D.Alter heading to the left.
Q57. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of aerodrome under radar control will be separated by :
- A.15 nm
- B.10 nm
- C.5 nm✓
- D.3 nm
Why: The standard radar/ADS-B horizontal minimum of 5 NM applies here too. Being near an aerodrome does not by itself reduce it. The reductions in 8.7.3.2 are permissions the ATS authority must prescribe — 3 NM where radar capability allows, and 2.5 NM only between aircraft established on the same final approach track inside 10 NM of the runway end. "In the vicinity of an aerodrome" is not the same as "established on final approach", so the standard figure stands. Reference: PANS-ATM 8.7.3.1
Q58. An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
- A.A Control Zone.✓
- B.An Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
- C.A Terminal Control Area.
- D.An airway.
Q59. . What is defined as “ A unit established to provide flight information and alerting service” ?
- A.Air Traffic Service Unit
- B.Aeronautical Service
- C.Area Control Service
- D.Flight Information Centre✓
Why: A flight information centre is a unit established to provide flight information service and alerting service — exactly those two services, and not air traffic control. That is the point of the definition. An air traffic services unit is the generic term covering an ATC unit, a flight information centre and an ATS reporting office together, so it is too broad to be the answer; area control service is a control service, which an FIC does not provide. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Definitions (also PANS-ATM Chapter 1)
Q60. Within a control zone, the air traffic control is provided by
- A.Area control
- B.Aerodrome Control
- C.Approach Control✓
- D.Flight Information control
Why: A control zone surrounds an aerodrome and extends upward from the surface, so it is served by the aerodrome tower and by approach control for arriving and departing traffic. Area control is what it cannot be: an area control centre serves control areas and airways en route, not the zone around an aerodrome.
Q61. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates:
- A.The location of ATC on an airfield
- B.The location where visiting pilots should report✓
- C.The location of the control tower
- D.Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots
Q62. What is the minimum visibility requirement in under special VFR operation in Class D airspace below 10000 feet
- A.Day- 2 Km
- B.Day- 3 Km
- C.Day- 1.5 Km when so prescribed by appropriate ATS authority.✓
- D.Day-1 km
Q63. Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
- A.The engines are at maximum thrust output at slow air speed✓
- B.The rear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
- C.Of the high angle of attack and high gross weight
- D.Lift is greater than the drag
Q64. Avoiding wake turbulence is
- A.The sole responsibility of the ATC .
- B.The sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of wake turbulence .
- C.A responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC.
- D.The sole responsibility of the pilot.✓
Q65. Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately
- A.before rotation
- B.following take-off✓
- C.above its flight path.
- D.following full power application.
Q66. What does a flashing white light from ATC indicate to the pilot of a taxiing aircraft?
- A.Clear the landing area immediately
- B.Taxi to the holding point for the runway in use
- C.Hold your position and await a flashing green light
- D.Return to the starting point on the aerodrome✓
Q67. A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
- A.2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
- B.7,00 feet above the surface of the earth .
- C.the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit✓
- D.a specified height above the surface of the earth .
Why: From the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit — that is the definition word for word. The distractors offering a specific height above the surface are describing a control AREA, not a zone. The zone is the one that comes all the way down to the ground. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Definitions (also PANS-ATM Chapter 1)
Q68. When on VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of clouds by at least
- A.5,00 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally .
- B.5,00 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally .
- C.1,000 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.✓
- D.1,000 feet vertically and 3 km horizontally.
Why: 1500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically — and 300 m is 1000 ft, which is how the figure is usually spoken. This pair is worth memorising as a single item, because it is constant across the whole of Table 3-1 wherever a cloud distance is specified at all. Only the visibility changes with altitude (5 km, then 8 km above 10 000 ft), and only Classes F and G at low level escape the cloud distances entirely by flying clear of cloud in sight of the surface. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Table 3-1 (see 4.1)
Q69. Flight plan must be filed;
- A.For all flights✓
- B.For schedule flights only
- C.For training flights only
- D.IFR flights proposed to be conducted in controlled airspace only
Q70. All the flights at night must be conducted in accordance with IFR.
- A.When the aircraft is flown at or above F 150.
- B.If weather condition do not permit VMC operation.
- C.If aircraft is flown within a controlled airspace.
- D.Irrespective of weather condition and flight level.✓
Q71. Horizontal separation of aircraft at same cruising level and in same track by time is:
- A.30 min.
- B.20 min.
- C.10 min.
- D.15 min.✓
Why: Same rule, asked the other way round: the time-based longitudinal minimum for same track, same level is 15 minutes. Note the word "horizontal" here means longitudinal — along the track — not lateral. Lateral separation is a different mechanism entirely, expressed as an angular divergence plus a distance from the facility rather than as a time. Reference: PANS-ATM 5.4.2.2.1.1 a)
Q72. On a X-country flight where reporting points are not available position report shall be made every _____ min in IMC.
- A.60 mins.
- B.first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins✓
- C.15 mins.
- D.45 mins
Why: Same rule as the previous question: first report after the first half hour, then hourly. Note that 4.11.1.2 is written in terms of the ROUTE — whether it is defined by designated significant points — and not in terms of the meteorological conditions. The mention of IMC in the stem does not change the interval. Reference: PANS-ATM 4.11.1.2
Q73. “Controlled Airspace “means airspace of defined dimensions within which
- A.Control Zone regulations are in force
- B.Security regulations are in force.
- C.Special VFR flight only is permitted
- D.An ATC service is provided.✓
Why: Controlled airspace is an airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic CONTROL service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification. Two things are doing work in that definition. First, it is the control service that makes airspace controlled — not flight information service, not an alerting service. Second, "in accordance with the airspace classification" means how much control you actually get depends on the class: A through E are all controlled, but the service each one owes to IFR and VFR traffic differs. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Definitions (also PANS-ATM Chapter 1)
Q74. A Control Area normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
- A.2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
- B.7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.
- C.The surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
- D.A specified height above the surface of the earth, which should not be less than 200 mts✓
Why: A control area is controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit ABOVE the earth — and that is what decides this question. Every other option either starts at the surface, which would make it a control zone, or names an arbitrary height. The base of a control area is not fixed worldwide; it is prescribed for each area, and the lower limit is set so that aircraft operating beneath it are clear of the controlled airspace. Contrast it with a control zone, which by definition extends upwards from the surface itself. Reference: ICAO Annex 2, Definitions (also PANS-ATM Chapter 1)
Q75. A light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft requires a spacing of:
- A.2 min.✓
- B.3 min.
- C.5 min
- D.4 min
Q76. Longitudinal separation between two a/c on same track is:
- A.10mins
- B.15mins✓
- C.05mins
- D.20mins
Q77. Two digits in black over yellow back ground hanging from the tower indicates
- A.Time in VTC (hrs)
- B.runway in use✓
- C.Location of ATS reporting point
- D.current visibility in kms.
Q78. Position reports to be given by an aircraft in VMC, if no route is being followed will be at an interval of
- A.30 mins
- B.60 mins
- C.First report after 30 mins and sub regent after 60 mins✓
- D.on as required Basis
Q79. CTA extends from:
- A.Ground level to a specified upper limit
- B.At least 700’ from the surface of the earth to unlimited✓
- C.At least 5000’ from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
- D.None of the above
Q80. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G airspace in ?
- A.180 knots
- B.250 knots✓
- C.350 knots
- D.There is no limit
Q81. What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?
- A.Go-around
- B.Do not land, divert
- C.Land at this aerodrome after receiving a green light
- D.Give way to other aircraft and continue circling✓
Q82. Which type of controlled airspace touches the ground?
- A.A Terminal Control Area
- B.An Airway
- C.A Control Zone✓
- D.CTA
Q83. What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no advice as to the correct action to take to avoid it?
- A.Flight Advisory Service
- B.Flight Information Service✓
- C.Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service
- D.Radar Control & Procedural Control
Q84. In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all other traffic, no separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter the airspace?
- A.Class B
- B.Class C✓
- C.Class D
- D.Class E
Q85. ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?
- A.All aircraft arriving at the aerodrome only
- B.All aircraft arriving or departing the aerodrome
- C.Controlled traffic arriving at the aerodrome only
- D.Controlled traffic arriving or departing the aerodrome only✓
Q86. Crossing of an ATS route should be at an angle of :
- A.60º
- B.90º✓
- C.45º
- D.30º
Q87. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by
- A.Switching on/off Nav lights
- B.Rocking Wings✓
- C.Flickering Anti-collision lights
- D.Flying low
Q88. NDB separation is
- A.15º at 15 NMs
- B.30º at 15 NMs✓
- C.45º at 15 NMs
- D.15º at 30 NMs
Q89. The pilot has to inform the ATC if its TAS changes by
- A.3 % & 5 kts
- B.5% & 10 kts✓
- C.10% & 5 kts
- D.3 kts
Q90. All A/c from one FIR to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS ___________ mts prior to entry.
- A.60
- B.20
- C.10✓
- D.30
Q91. When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop:
- A.With nose gear on hold line
- B.So that no part of the A/c extends beyond hold line✓
- C.So that the Flt Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line
- D.Wings are in line with hold line.
Q92. Separation is affected between:
- A.Special VFR flts & IFR flts✓
- B.Special VFR flts & VFR flts
- C.Both of the above
- D.None of the above
Q93. Track separation is also known as separation
- A.Vertical
- B.Lateral✓
- C.Longitudinal
- D.Composite
Q94. Vertical separation in CVSM airspaces above FL 290 is:
- A.1000’
- B.2000’✓
- C.4000’
- D.5000’
Q95. ATC services are provided to IFR flts and traffic information to VFR flts as far as practical provided in class airspace:
- A.B
- B.C
- C.D
- D.E✓
Q96. Two digits in black over yellow black ground hanging from the tower indicates
- A.Time in UTC (hrs)
- B.runway in use✓
- C.Location of ATS reporting point
- D.current visibility in kms.
Q97. Position reports to be given by an aircraft, if no route is being followed will be at an interval of:
- A.30 mins
- B.60 mins
- C.First report after 30 mins and subsequent reports after 60 mins✓
- D.on as required basis
Q98. Control area is
- A.Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth
- B.Controlled airspace extending upwards from surface of the earth to a specified limit
- C.Controlled airspace
- D.Both a and c above✓
Q99. Width of an airway is
- A.10 nm over land and 20 nm over sea
- B.20 nm over land and 20 nm over sea✓
- C.20 nm over land and 40 nm over sea
- D.20 nm over land and 10 nm over sea
Q100. An aircraft transiting from one FIR to next FIR shall request transfer to ATC at least
- A.60 minutes
- B.30 minutes
- C.15 minutes
- D.10 minutes✓
Q101. A/c on same level converging track has separation
- A.15min✓
- B.10min
- C.5min
- D.20NM
Q102. What should be the flight visibility of an a/c flying at 3000’ in class G airspace
- A.1500m
- B.5km✓
- C.8km
- D.Clear of cloud and in sight of surface
Q103. What type of flight is allowed in class A airspace
- A.IFR only✓
- B.IFR and VFR
- C.IFR and special VFR
- D.VFR only
Q104. In IMC aircraft changes from aerodrome control tower to approach control
- A.Immediately after take off.✓
- B.before entering runway
- C.on finals
Q105. Position report should be given in…
- A.30 min in IMC
- B.15 min in IMC
- C.45 min in VMC
- D.first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins✓
Q106. On x-country flt you divert to another aerodrome, you have to inform ATC if delayed by:
- A.15 min
- B.60 min
- C.30 min✓
Q107. Track separation is:
- A.Longitudinal
- B.vertical
- C.composite
- D.Lateral✓
Q108. Geographical separation is:
- A.Longitudinal
- B.vertical
- C.composite
- D.Lateral✓
Q109. Semi-circular system sectors are.
- A.From 001º to 180º and 181º to 360º
- B.From 000º to 089º, 090º to 179º, 180º to 269º and 270º to 359º
- C.From 090º to 260º and 270º to 089º
- D.From 000º 179º and 180º to 359º✓
Q110. Aerodrome local flying area is to be considered, if ATZ is not notified:
- A.With in 5 NM of ARP up to 3000 feet.✓
- B.With in 25 NM of ARP up to 10,000 feet.
- C.with in 10 NM of ARP up to 5000 feet.
- D.with in 5 NM of ARP up to 1000 feet.
Q111. Reporting time on routes not defined by reporting points is :
- A.First half hour then every hour✓
- B.First report after 30’, subsequent on as required basis
- C.Every hour
- D.As per the desire of p-i-c.
Q112. IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC:
- A.Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient aerodrome.
- B.Fly according to flight plan✓
- C.Change to VFR plan
- D.Inform ATC and take advice.
Q113. A/c A at F390 reports at a point at 0210 wants to descend to F330, a/c B at F 360 estimates to reach the same reporting point at 0300. Before what time the first a/c should reach F330?
- A.0235
- B.0250
- C.0225✓
- D.0215
Q114. IFR flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from flight plan resulting in;
- A.Variation of TAS by 5%
- B.Change in ETA over reporting point by more then 3 minutes
- C.Change in current flight plan in emergency
- D.All above are correct✓
Q115. All aircraft transiting from one FIR to another FIR should inform ATS units responsible for providing FIS at least:
- A.60 minutes prior to entry
- B.20 minutes prior to entry
- C.10 minutes before entry✓
- D.after crossing the FIR boundary
Q116. In a category D airspace, ATC will provide separation between:
- A.request to IFR flights and traffic information to VFR flights✓
- B.IFR flights and IFR flights
- C.IFR flights and IFR/VFR flights and VFR/VFR flights
- D.IFR flights and IFR & VFR flights