National LawAir Regulations — DGCA CPL practice questions
Question 1 of 128
Aerodrome data and facilities are given in
All 128 questions — National Law
Air Regulations · DGCA CPL. The correct option is marked on each.
Q1. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in
- A.Aeradio
- B.AIP✓
- C.Notams
- D.AIRACs
Q2. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled controlled flight is delayed by more than
- A.One hour
- B.30 minutes✓
- C.15 mins
- D.5 mins
Q3. Routes guides are required to be carried by :
- A.All aircraft
- B.Pvt. Aircraft
- C.Scheduled aircraft✓
- D.Aerial aircraft
Q4. AIP India is published by
- A.DGCA
- B.AAI✓
- C.Civil Aviation Ministry
- D.ICAO
Q5. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
- A.Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction
- B.Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
- C.Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas✓
- D.To warn pilots about conflicting traffic
Q6. A pilot not having an instrument rating cannot fly :
- A.At any time.
- B.During hours of night.✓
- C.Without permission of aerodrome officer.
- D.Without permission from the DGCA.
Q7. An aircraft should be refueled:
- A.Inside a hanger.
- B.Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
- C.In the open.✓
- D.Wherever adequate facility exists.
Q8. Prohibition of flights over refinery:
- A.With in a radius of 1 NM.
- B.With in a radius of 10 NM
- C.With in a radius of 20 NM
- D.with in a radius of 10 kms✓
Q9. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:
- A.Provided the owner has no objection.
- B.Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
- C.Without restriction if no passengers are carried.
- D.Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits.✓
Q10. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 30 m width shall be:
- A.4
- B.6
- C.8✓
- D.12
Why: 8 stripes. The number of threshold stripes depends on runway width: 18 m 4, 23 m 6, 30 m 8, 45 m 12, 60 m 16. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 4 Series B Part I, 5.2.4.5
Q11. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:
- A.One pilot.
- B.Two pilots
- C.As specified in the certificate of the Airworthiness✓
- D.The flight instructor along with private pilot.
Q12. A person dies of cholera, his body can be brought to if:
- A.Packed in a wooden box.
- B.Cannot be brought.
- C.Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust impregnated with carbolic powder. Permitted by the DGCA.✓
Q13. Under the current DGCA FDTL CAR, a two-pilot crew flying the maximum flight time of 9 hours in 24 hours may make at most:
- A.1 landing
- B.4 landings
- C.2 landings✓
- D.3 landings
Why: 2 landings. With 9 hours' flight time the maximum FDP is 13:00 and only 2 landings are allowed (8 h allows up to 6 landings at an 11:00 FDP; 10 h allows 1). The old domestic/international table no longer exists. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III, 6.1
Q14. Route guides are required to be carried in
- A.all aircraft
- B.all private aircraft
- C.Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services✓
- D.all aircraft engaged in aerial work
Q15. ADC clearance is required to be obtained
- A.on a cross country flight
- B.for all aircraft operating within ADIZ✓
- C.When returning to base on the same day
- D.it is not required when returning to base on the same day
Q16. Letter ‘W’ in designator indicates:
- A.Domestic routes✓
- B.International routes
- C.Regional routes
- D.None of the above
Q17. Anti-collision light is a light :
- A.Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower
- B.A red light on the port wing of the aircraft
- C.A flashing red light intended to attract attention to the aircraft, visible in all directions✓
- D.The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights
Why: A flashing red (or white) light that attracts attention to the aircraft and is visible in all directions. Anti-collision lights are required on all aeroplanes operated at night. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 9 Series C Part I (Rules of the Air) 3.2.3; DGCA CAR Section 8 Series O Part II 6.10
Q18. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is: ______ hrs
- A.200
- B.900
- C.1200
- D.1000✓
Q19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by
- A.DGCA
- B.Operator
- C.Operator & is approved by DGCA✓
- D.India Met Department
Q20. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC’s action is:
- A.To land immediately.
- B.To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.✓
- C.To inform DGCA.
- D.To inform doctor on board.
Q21. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days
- A.100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot
- B.100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot✓
- C.120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot
- D.120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot
Q22. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with in a distance of:
- A.15 meters
- B.30 meters
- C.43 meters✓
- D.45 meters
Q23. ADC is not required
- A.Local flying area uptp 2000’
- B.Within 5 nm of an aerodrome upto 1000’✓
- C.Aerodrome Traffic zone upto 1000’
- D.Below 5000’ AMSL anywhere
Q24. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
- A.One hour
- B.30 minutes✓
- C.15 mins
- D.5 mins
Q25. Mathura Refinery is a:
- A.Danger Area
- B.Restricted area
- C.Prohibited area.✓
- D.Terminal area.
Q26. A flight , which exceeds Mach number-1 , cannot fly over:
- A.Populated areas
- B.Indian Air Space✓
- C.Europe
- D.High seas
Q27. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in possession of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
- A.Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of the passenger✓
- B.No action required
- C.Inform Airlines office after landing
- D.Inform health authorities of the place of departure
Q28. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of
- A.DGCA✓
- B.Controller of Aerodrome
- C.Director General of Prisons
- D.Police Commissioner
Q29. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:
- A.Pilots only
- B.Pilots and cabin crews only
- C.P-i-C and Co-pilot
- D.all flight crew personnel✓
Q30. Flight Manual is to be carried by
- A.All aircraft
- B.Scheduled aircraft only
- C.If C of A states so✓
- D.All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft
Q31. The incubation period of relapsing fever is______ .days:
- A.6
- B.7
- C.8✓
- D.10
Q32. Incubation period of yellow fever is _______ days:
- A.6✓
- B.7
- C.8
- D.9
Q33. No authorized person must be present within ______ mts of a/c while refueling is on
- A.15✓
- B.30
- C.50
- D.10
Q34. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is
- A.4 hrs
- B.2 hrs✓
- C.6 hrs
- D.8 hrs
Why: Two hours. For unforeseen operational circumstances the Flight Duty Period may be extended by a maximum of 2 hours (flight time by 1 hour, one extra landing). The 4-hour figure belongs to the old FDTL scheme. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III, 16.1
Q35. Night flying hours can be logged between __________ mins after sunset to ________ mins before sunrise:
- A.30 mins✓
- B.45 mins
- C.1 hrs
- D.15 mins
Why: 30 minutes. For logging, 'flight by night' is from half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise. (VFR operations use a different limit: 20 minutes.) Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Schedule II para 4
Q36. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in ____ hrs
- A.12
- B.24✓
- C.48
- D.60
Q37. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in ___ NM of International Border:
- A.15 km
- B.5 NM
- C.10 NM
- D.15 NM✓
Q38. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, number of cabin attendants required is_____.
- A.6
- B.5✓
- C.4
- D.7
Why: Five. Above 50 seats the rule is two cabin crew plus one for each unit (or part of a unit) of 50 seats above a seating capacity of 99. 215 − 99 = 116, which is 3 part-units, so 2 + 3 = 5. Crew are counted on seats installed, not passengers carried. Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Rule 38B(1)(iii)
Q39. Incubation period for typhus is_________ days:
- A.7
- B.5
- C.10
- D.14✓
Why: 14 days. The rules fix the incubation period of each quarantinable disease: yellow fever 6, plague 6, cholera 5, smallpox 14, typhus 14, relapsing fever 8. Reference: Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1954, Rule 2(15)
Q40. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/C if it has the permission of
- A.DM/ Commissioner of Police✓
- B.DGCA
- C.Aerodrome officer
- D.ICAO
Q41. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery is:
- A.With in a radius of 1 NM
- B.With in a radius of 10 km✓
- C.With in a radius of 20 km
- D.With in a radius of 10 Nms
Why: Within a radius of 10 km. Schedule I lists the area within ten kilometres of the Mathura refineries as a prohibited area, ground to unlimited. The unit is kilometres, not nautical miles. Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Schedule I (4); AIP India ENR 5.1
Q42. Anti collision lights are _________ lights
- A.Steady Red
- B.Rotating Red
- C.Flashing Red✓
- D.Red & White
Q43. The route navigation charges are on the basis of:
- A.AUW✓
- B.Length of aircraft
- C.No. of Nav Aids used
- D.No. of passengers
Q44. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptacle, which exceeds _______________lts
- A..1000
- B.900✓
- C.1500
- D.500
Q45. The original Aircraft (Demolition of Obstructions caused by Buildings and Trees etc.) Rules were notified in the year:
- A.1934
- B.1937
- C.1994✓
- D.1954
Why: 1994. The original Aircraft (Demolition of Obstructions caused by Buildings and Trees etc.) Rules were notified in 1994; they have since been replaced by the 2026 Rules. Reference: DGCA list of Rules (Demolition Rules 1994 / 2026)
Q46. Prohibited area around Malabar hill is _____ mile.
- A.1 NM
- B.1 Mile✓
- C.5 NMs
- D.1 Km
Q47. A/C incident should be notified with in _______ hrs.
- A.24 hrs✓
- B.12 hrs
- C.48 hrs
- D.36 hrs
Why: 24 hours. Under the 2025 investigation rules the pilot-in-command (or owner/operator) must notify an accident OR an incident to the AAIB and DGCA not later than 24 hours after becoming aware of it. The older 48-hour figure for incidents no longer applies. Reference: Aircraft (Investigation of Accidents and Incidents) Rules 2025, Rule 4(1)
Q48. Indian Airspace comes under ________ class of airspace.
- A.A&B
- B.D& E
- C.A,B,C& D
- D.C, D, E, F & G✓
Why: C, D, E, F and G. Classes A and B are designated but their implementation is still under consideration; controlled airspace uses C and D, ATS routes outside controlled airspace E and F, the rest G. Reference: AIP India ENR 1.4
Q49. No unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C , while refueling is on .
- A.15 mts✓
- B.30 mts
- C.50 mts
- D.10 mts
Q50. An aircraft must fly ______ Nm away from International Border.
- A.10 NMs
- B.15 NMs✓
- C.20 NMs
- D.25 NMs
Q51. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by _________ minutes.
- A.10 mins
- B.15 mins
- C.30 mins✓
- D.60 mins
Q52. ________Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan.
- A.S
- B.N✓
- C.Z Z
- D.NS
Q53. 4 pairs of touch down zone markings indicate landing distance available
- A.900m
- B.1200 to 1500 m
- C.1500 mto2399 m✓
- D.2400 m or more
Q54. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in
- A.12 hrs
- B.24 hrs✓
- C.48 hrs
- D.60 hrs
Q55. An Air-miss incident report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in _____ days.
- A.1 day (within 24 hours)✓
- B.4
- C.7
- D.10
Why: Within 24 hours. The Air Traffic Incident Report Form confirming a radio report must be submitted as promptly as possible after landing and in any case within 24 hours. Reference: AIP India ENR 1.14, 5.1
Q56. ‘Flight by night ‘means a flight performed between the periods of
- A.30 mins after sunset to 30 mins before sunrise✓
- B.15 mins before sunrise to 15 mins after sunset
- C.45 mins before sunrise to 45 mins after sunset
- D.60 mins before sunrise
Why: From 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise. Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Schedule II para 4 (Flight by night)
Q57. ‘RPL’ shall be used for ___________ flights only.
- A.VFR Flts
- B.Domestic flights
- C.IFR Flts✓
- D.International Flight
Q58. Route Navigation charges are based on
- A.Length of ac
- B.Number of passengers
- C.All up weight of ac✓
- D.nav-aids Enroute
Q59. Mathura Refinery is a _________ area.
- A.Danger Area
- B.Restricted Area
- C.Prohibited Area✓
- D.Terminal Area
Q60. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft
- A.May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
- B.May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of the aircraft.✓
- C.Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA
- D.Must take off after clearance from nearly aerodrome officer
Q61. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is:
- A.200 hrs.
- B.900 hrs
- C.1200 hrs
- D.1000 hrs.✓
Q62. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in ___ of International Border:
- A.15 km
- B.5 NM
- C.10 NM
- D.15 NM✓
Q63. A passenger transport aircraft with 250 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of 136. The number of flight attendants required is:
- A.5
- B.3
- C.6✓
- D.10
Why: Cabin crew are calculated on SEATS INSTALLED, never on the passengers actually carried — so the load of 136 is a deliberate distractor. An aircraft is crewed for the seats it has. Rule 38B(1) of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 sets the minimum: an aeroplane with a seating capacity of not less than 10 and not more than 50 needs one cabin crew; and an aircraft with a seating capacity of more than 50 needs two cabin crew, plus one more for each unit (or part of a unit) of 50 passenger seats above a seating capacity of 99. Note the threshold is 99, not 100 — that single seat is what most people get wrong. For 250 seats: 250 − 99 = 151, which is three full units of 50 plus a part unit, so it counts as 4, giving 2 + 4 = 6. Working the same way: 100–149 seats needs 3, 150–199 needs 4, 200–249 needs 5, and 250–299 needs 6.
Q64. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is:
- A.69 hours in the 27days prior to the flight
- B.100 hours in the 27days before the current flight
- C.1000 hours in any 365 consecutive days✓
- D.1200 hours in the year upto end of the month prior to present flight
Why: 1000 hours in any 365 consecutive days. The cumulative limits are 35/65/100/300/1000 hours over 7/14/28/90/365 days. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III, 8
Q65. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is:
- A.200 hrs.
- B.900 hrs
- C.1200 hrs.
- D.1000 hrs.✓
Q66. Indian ATS Routes come under _______class of airspace:
- A.A & B
- B.E
- C.A, B, C, & D
- D.C, D, E, & F✓
Why: C, D, E and F. ATS routes inside controlled airspace are Class C or D; ATS route segments outside controlled airspace are Class E or F. Reference: AIP India ENR 1.4
Q67. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown:
- A.At any time.
- B.During hours of night.✓
- C.Without permission of aerodrome officer.
- D.Without permission from the DGCA.
Q68. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:
- A.Seating capacity of the aircraft.
- B.Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
- C.All -up weight of the aircraft.✓
- D.No charges are levels ; if free passengers are carried.
Q69. A person can bring unto human remains of a person who may have died of plague:
- A.If enclosed in a wooden box.
- B.If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
- C.If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell if zinc after permission id obtained from proper authority.
- D.Cannot bring them.✓
Q70. Special Air Report is made by:
- A.Aerodrome officer
- B.Meteorology officer at Airport
- C.An Aircraft✓
- D.Met Department
Q71. No unauthorized person must be within ______ mtr of a/c while refueling is going on
- A.15 mts✓
- B.30 mts
- C.50 m ts
- D.10 mts
Q72. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by:
- A.10 mins
- B.15 mins
- C.30 mins✓
- D.60 mins
Q73. In night starts from
- A.20 mts after sunset
- B.30 mts after sunset✓
- C.20 mts before sunset
- D.30 mts before sunset
Why: 30 minutes after sunset, for the Aircraft Rules definition of flight by night. (Do not confuse it with the VFR limit of 20 minutes after sunset.) Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Schedule II para 4
Q74. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, in number of cabin attendants required is:
- A.6
- B.5✓
- C.4
- D.7
Q75. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to if:
- A.Packed in a wooden box.
- B.Cannot be brought.
- C.Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust impregnated with carbolic powder.✓
- D.Permitted by the DGCA.
Q76. Flight Duty Time can be extended by______ hrs in a day:
- A.3 hrs
- B.2 hrs✓
- C.5 hrs
- D.6 hrs
Why: 2 hours. For unforeseen operational circumstances the FDP may be extended by a maximum of 2 hours (flight time by 1 hour). Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III, 16.1
Q77. Incubation period for typhus is:
- A.7 days
- B.5 days
- C.10 days
- D.14 days✓
Q78. Pilot to act as PIC of a public transport a/c should have flown on that route times:
- A.1✓
- B.2
- C.3
- D.4
Q79. Runway threshold stripes are 8 on each side of central line of runway:
- A.30 m
- B.45 m
- C.60 m✓
- D.23 m
Q80. Draft amendments to aircraft rules 1937 will be published in:
- A.AIP
- B.AIC✓
- C.AIP Supplement
- D.CARs
Q81. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the permission of :
- A.Operator
- B.DGCA✓
- C.Central govt.
- D.ATC
Q82. A person can bring to human remains of a person who has died of plague:
- A.If enclosed in a wooden box.
- B.If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
- C.If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper authority.
- D.Cannot bring them.✓
Q83. In case ICAO aircraft designator is not assigned, insert _________ in item 9 of flight plan:
- A.NA
- B.TYP
- C.Plain Language designator
- D.ZZZZ✓
Q84. Inst. Charts carried in aircraft are contained in:
- A.Operation Manual
- B.Aircraft Manual
- C.Route guides✓
- D.Operational Circulars
Q85. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of :
- A.Police commissioner
- B.DGCA✓
- C.DM
- D.DIG prisons
Q86. Indian airspace is classified as:
- A.A,B,C,D
- B.B,C,D,E
- C.C,D,E,F
- D.C, D, E, F, G✓
Why: C, D, E, F and G (Classes A and B designated, implementation under consideration). Reference: AIP India ENR 1.4
Q87. The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller driven aeroplane at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient ,having regard to the meteorological conditions and foreseeable delays that are expected in flight , to fly to the destination aerodrome
- A.And then fly for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- B.And then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.✓
- C.Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- D.Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Why: Destination, then 30 minutes. For a day VFR flight the fuel must cover the flight to the aerodrome of intended landing plus a final reserve of at least 30 minutes at normal cruising altitude. Destination + alternate + 45 minutes is the IFR requirement. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 8 Series O Part III, 2.2.3.6 c)
Q88. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable, which exceeds
- A.1000 lts
- B.900 lts✓
- C.1500 lts
- D.500 lts
Q89. Night flying hours can be logged between
- A.30 mins after sunset to 30 mins before sunrise✓
- B.45 mins
- C.1 hrs
- D.15 mins
Why: 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise - the Aircraft Rules definition of flight by night used for logging. Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Schedule II para 4
Q90. 46 Runway threshold stripes are 8 on each side of central line of runway:
- A.30 m
- B.45 m
- C.60 m✓
- D.23 m
Why: 60 m. Eight stripes on EACH side is 16 stripes in total, which is the pattern for a 60 m wide runway (18 m: 4, 23 m: 6, 30 m: 8, 45 m: 12, 60 m: 16). Reference: DGCA CAR Section 4 Series B Part I (Aerodromes), 5.2.4.5
Q91. Flt Duty Time in the event of being extended shall be limited to:
- A.3 hrs
- B.2 hrs✓
- C.6 hrs
- D.8 hrs
Why: 2 hours - the maximum FDP extension for unforeseen operational circumstances. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III, 16.1
Q92. Cosmic Radiations affect a pilot flying over a height above:
- A.F 430
- B.F 450
- C.F 470
- D.F 490✓
Q93. A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c in last 29 consecutive days. He can fly _____ on 30th day:
- A.6 hrs as p-i-c
- B.6 hrs as co-pilot✓
- C.8 hrs as Supernumerary pilot
- D.None of the above
Why: 6 hours as co-pilot. The limit is 125 hours in any 30 consecutive days, with PIC time counted in full and co-pilot or supernumerary time counted at 80%. After 120 hours, 5 remain: 6 h as co-pilot counts as 4.8 h (allowed); 8 h as supernumerary counts as 6.4 h (too much); 6 h as PIC is 6 h (too much). Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Rule 42A and Explanation
Q94. Flight Duty time is calculated based on:
- A.Chokes off to Chokes on time.
- B.From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing.
- C.From reporting for duty until engines off at the end of the last flight✓
- D.One hour before take off till 30 mins after landing
Why: From reporting for duty until engines off at the end of the last flight. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III (definition of Flight Duty Period)
Q95. Maximum age up to which a pilot can fly for remuneration is:
- A.55 yrs
- B.60 yrs
- C.65 yrs✓
- D.70 yrs
Q96. The following aircraft will be given priority to land:
- A.An aircraft with VVIP on board
- B.An aircraft with critical shortage of fuel✓
- C.A scheduled aircraft
- D.An aircraft experiencing in flight bad visibility
Q97. A VFR flt cannot be operated:
- A.At F120
- B.At transonic speed✓
- C.100 NMs from the seashore in uncontrolled airspace
- D.Across international borders
Q98. Cabin crew requirement for an airplane with seating capacity of more than 50 passengers is :
- A.One cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers
- B.Two cabin crew plus one cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers units above 99 passengers✓
- C.Non of the above
- D.both are correct
Q99. An Air India aircraft is on an dry lease to I.F.A for military use. It will be known as a:
- A.Civil aircraft
- B.Military aircraft✓
- C.International flight
- D.Domestic flight
Q100. Succession of command is given by:
- A.The operator, in the Operations Manual✓
- B.DGCA
- C.Central government
- D.ICAO
Why: By the operator, in the Operations Manual, which must designate the succession of command for each route. Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Rule 140B(2)(b)
Q101. A pilot doing a test flight can carried by:
- A.On payment
- B.Without payment
- C.Cannot carried✓
- D.Can carry if operator permits
Q102. ADC is required for
- A.Scheduled flight only
- B.Non-scheduled flight only
- C.All flightr in ADIZs✓
- D.Flights close to international border
Q103. Cabin crew required for a passenger plane with 83 seating capacity is
- A.8
- B.2✓
- C.3
- D.2 + 1 for 50 passengers carried more.
Q104. Personnel flying above altitude of ___ feet are required to maintain a separate log to calculate hours of exposure to radiation:
- A.40000 ft
- B.41000 ft
- C.45000 ft
- D.49000 ft✓
Q105. Twin engine operations are governed by:
- A.STOP
- B.ETOPS✓
- C.RNP
- D.RNAV
Q106. When refueling operations are in progress, unauthorized persons are prohibited within
- A.15 mtrs✓
- B.30 mtrs
- C.43 mtrs
- D.20 mtrs
Q107. An operator must maintain medical records of flight crew for radiation exposure above
- A.49,000ft✓
- B.51,000ft
- C.46,000ft
- D.41,000ft
Q108. An a/c with seating capacity of 150, what is the number of flight attendants required to be
- A.carried on the flight: 2
- B.3
- C.4✓
- D.5
Q109. Record to be maintained for months for radiation if flying above…
- A.10,000’
- B.49,000’✓
- C.60,000’
Q110. ADC is not required if flying in
- A.5 nm and below 3000’
- B.3 nm and below 1000’
- C.5 nm and below 1000’ AGL✓
Q111. Incubation period for relapsing fever is:
- A.6 days
- B.7 days
- C.8 days✓
Q112. In IMC a/c on aerodrome control to approach control will be transferred:
- A.Immediately after take off✓
- B.Immediately before entering runway.
- C.After leaving ATZ
- D.5 NM from ARP
Q113. No of runway threshold stripes for a runway width of 23 meters is
- A.4
- B.5
- C.6✓
- D.7
Q114. No of cabin crew is required according to
- A.No. of passengers excluding crew members
- B.No. of persons on board including crew members
- C.No of seats✓
- D.No. of services offered on board
Q115. Amendment to aircraft rules 1937 is given in:
- A.AIP
- B.Gazette of India (with advance notice by AIC)✓
- C.AIRAC
- D.CARs
Why: Amendments to the Aircraft Rules are notified in the Gazette of India; an AIC gives advance notice of major legislative changes. Reference: AIP India GEN 3.1 (AIC); Aircraft Rules amendments (G.S.R. notifications)
Q116. Succession of command is given:
- A.In Operation manual✓
- B.by Operator
- C.by DGCA
- D.in COA
Q117. Can fly PIC if he has flown that route without carrying passengers at least ___ times in last 12 months:
- A.1✓
- B.3
- C.4
- D.6
Q118. An a/c can be inspected by
- A.Aerodrome officer
- B.Custom’s officer
- C.DGCA authorized personnel✓
Q119. An operator must keep a record of his flight crew when flown above ______ for at least 12 months of the flight for cosmic radiation effects:
- A.FL 490✓
- B.FL 510
- C.FL 150
- D.FL 290
Q120. Before arrival in a health report is to be sent.
- A.Before take off
- B.7 days prior to arrival
- C.2 hours before arrival✓
- D.5 hours before arrival
Q121. The aerodrome at is not declared suitable for night operations. If the sunrise is at 0550 the earliest time by which an aircraft operation at the station can take place is;
- A.0605
- B.0535
- C.0550
- D.0520✓
Why: 0520. With no night facilities the aerodrome cannot be used by night, and for the Aircraft Rules night ends half an hour before sunrise: 0550 - 30 = 0520. Reference: Aircraft Rules 1937, Schedule II para 4
Q122. The responsibility for control of departing aircraft will be transferred from aerodrome control to approach control when IMC is prevailing;
- A.Immediately after the aircraft is airborne.✓
- B.In the vicinity of the aerodrome
- C.Reaching a DME distance of 15 nm
- D.After the aircraft enters clouds
Why: Immediately after the aircraft is airborne. In IMC, control of a departing aircraft passes from aerodrome control to approach control immediately after it becomes airborne. Reference: ICAO Doc 4444 4.3.2.1.3 b)
Q123. For each flight of an aeroplane above ______ the operator shall maintain records, so that the total cosmic radiation received by each crew member, over a period of 12 consecutive months can be determined:
- A.41,000 ft
- B.49,000 ft✓
- C.40,000 ft
- D.45,000 ft
Q124. Flight duty time if inevitably extended, will be limited to:
- A.3 hrs
- B.8 hrs
- C.6 hrs
- D.2 hrs✓
Why: 2 hours - the maximum FDP extension for unforeseen operational circumstances. Reference: DGCA CAR Section 7 Series J Part III, 16.1
Q125. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident after:
- A.He is cleared by the medical authority
- B.He is cleared by the DGCA✓
- C.He is cleared by the ATS authority
- D.He is cleared by the owner of the aircraft
Q126. No pilot shall fly for more then the number of hours specified below during any period of 30 consecutive days:
- A.120 hrs
- B.125 hrs✓
- C.130 hrs
- D.140 hrs
Q127. Cockpit check lists and emergency check lists are required to be carried in all Indian registered aircraft when they are effecting:
- A.Public transport.
- B.Aerial work.
- C.Any flight.✓
- D.Both public transport and aerial work aircraft.
Q128. No domestic flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in _________ nautical miles of international border.
- A.15 km.
- B.5 nm
- C.10nm
- D.15nm✓