International Organisations and ConventionsAir Regulations — DGCA CPL practice questions
Question 1 of 74
A pilot should never cross a:
All 74 questions — International Organisations and Conventions
Air Regulations · DGCA CPL. The correct option is marked on each.
Q1. A pilot should never cross a:
- A.Stop bar which is switched off
- B.Stop bar which is lighted✓
- C.A taxi holding position marking
- D.An intermediate holding position marking
Q2. Separation between Medium A/C taking off behind heavy A/C (or) Light A/C taking off behind Medium A/C is ______ min:
- A.02mins✓
- B.5mins
- C.3mins
- D.1 min
Q3. In class ‘D’ airspace visibility required for VFR flight below 10000’ ft.
- A.8000 mts.
- B.5000 mts✓
- C.3700 mts
- D.1500 mts.
Q4. Runway end lights appear as:
- A.Unidirectional green
- B.Omni directional red
- C.Unidirectional red✓
- D.Unidirectional amber
Q5. Separation between medium a/c taking off behind heavy a/c of (or) light a/c taking off behind medium a/c is:
- A.02 mins✓
- B.5 min s
- C.3 mins
- D.1 mins
Q6. Information about rules of the air is contained in _________ICAO document.
- A.Annex 2✓
- B.Annex 11
- C.Annex 14
- D.Doc 4444.
Q7. International flight flying time in one day is restricted to_____ for flight crew:
- A.9 hrs 3 landing✓
- B.6 hrs 4 landing
- C.8 hrs 4 landing
- D.8 hrs 3 landing .
Q8. For a VFR flight making approach at night, the approach will be
- A.faster than normal approach
- B.steeper than normal✓
- C.shallower than normal
- D.Non of the above
Q9. Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway 1000m of length should normally hold.
- A.Clear of the maneuvering area
- B.30 m from the edge of the runway
- C.50 m from the edge of the runway✓
- D.60 m from the edge of the runway
Q10. Speed limitations in class ‘A’ airspace are :
- A.250kts above 10,000’ AMSL
- B.250 kts below 10,000’ AMSL
- C.Not applicable✓
- D.Recommended in high density areas
Q11. Aircraft that has right -of-way shall:
- A.Maintain heading and speed✓
- B.Turn right
- C.Turn left
- D.Take no action
Q12. In class ‘D’ airspace, a VFR Flt at F120 requires inflight visibility of:
- A.5kms
- B.1.5kms
- C.3kms
- D.8kms✓
Q13. Annex dealing with operation of Aircraft is
- A.Annex 2
- B.Annex 6✓
- C.Annex 11
- D.Annex 14
Q14. What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?
- A.Show his open hand then close it✓
- B.Show his closed hand hen open it
- C.Cross his hands in front of his face
- D.Place his crossed hands in front of his face then uncross them
Q15. Runaway end lights appear as _____ lights:
- A.Green
- B.Blue
- C.White
- D.Red✓
Q16. Taxytrack center line lights are
- A.Red
- B.Green✓
- C.Yellow
- D.Alternate Red & Green
Q17. ADC is exempted for A/C flying within ___of the aerodrome and below
- A.10 NMS, 5000’
- B.5 NMS, 1000’✓
- C.5 NMS, 4000’
- D.5 NMS, 3000’
Q18. Runway centre line lights are:
- A.Blue
- B.White✓
- C.Red
- D.Amber
Q19. If a passenger falls sick then action by PIC is
- A.Inform Operator
- B.Inform health officer of destination✓
- C.Inform doctor on board
- D.Inform DGCA
Q20. An A/C flying a track of 180 degrees will fly at ____ level on a IFR plan..
- A.F 260✓
- B.F185
- C.F90
- D.F170
Q21. Pilot to act as PIC of a public transport a/c should have flown on that route:
- A.1✓
- B.2
- C.3
- D.4
Q22. No smoking shall be permitted within _______mtrs .of A/C (or) fuelling equipment.
- A.15mtrs
- B.10mts
- C.30 mts✓
- D.50 mts
Q23. For testing of Flt Recorder System:
- A.Minimum of 1 hour recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.
- B.Total of not more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
- C.Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased.✓
- D.Non of the above
Q24. A flt- plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for: -
- A.All Inst Flts
- B.All Inst and Visual Flts✓
- C.After 5 kms /5 Nms/
- D.All controlled flts
Q25. Flt Crew on Domestic Flt, the Flt time should not exceed more than ______ and No. of landing restrictions is
- A.8 hrs and 4 landings
- B.8 hrs and 6 landings✓
- C.9 hrs and 3 landings
- D.6 hrs and 4 landings
Q26. Enroute Jeppensen charts are based on ________________ projection
- A.Lamberts✓
- B.Mercator
- C.Conical
- D.Polar
Q27. Emergency check list is to be carried by:
- A.Scheduled flights
- B.Non - scheduled operators
- C.All aircraft✓
- D.If Co/A says so
Q28. Flt plan is to be filed in in respect of:
- A.All flights other than scheduled flts
- B.All flts other than local flts✓
- C.Only for scheduled flts
- D.International flights only
Q29. Sun rise at Kalikut aerodrome is at 0550h. A VFR flight can take off from there at the earliest at:
- A.0530 h
- B.0610 h
- C.0550 h✓
- D.0620 h
Q30. For safety reasons, a person should remain away from a jet engine by at least:
- A.100’
- B.200’✓
- C.300’
- D.500’
Q31. PIC of an aeroplane can fly for a maximum number of hours in a period of consecutive 30 Days:
- A.125 hours✓
- B.100 hours
- C.80 percent of time as co-pilot
- D.none of the above
Q32. Jeppessen charts use widely
- A.Polar stereographic projection
- B.Lamberts conical conformal✓
- C.Mercator
- D.Oblique Mercator
Q33. An operator can designate as a PIC of an aeroplane if
- A.He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 3 months
- B.He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 6 months
- C.He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 9 months
- D.He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 12 months✓
Q34. At runway and taxiway holding lines:
- A.White dashes lie towards nearest runway.
- B.Yellow continuous lines lie towards runway.
- C.While dashes lie towards nearest runway.✓
Q35. Destination and information sings are.
- A.Black letter in yellow background✓
- B.Yellow letter in black background
- C.White in back
Q36. If you see a white and flashing red light, ac is
- A.A/c flying away from you✓
- B.Right to left
- C.Left to right
Q37. One a/c is tracking 030 degree reporting over a point at 0412 hrs other on 100 degree cannot pass this point before:
- A.0422
- B.0427✓
- C.0417
Q38. Aircraft operation are given in annexure:
- A.3
- B.6✓
- C.11
Q39. time is 0550 hrs VFR flt can take off at
- A.0520 hrs
- B.0535 hrs
- C.0510 hrs
- D.0550 hrs✓
Q40. Appropriate way to cross a route.
- A.Along the traffic flow at 45 degrees
- B.90 degrees to the route✓
- C.Against the flow of traffic keeping a sharp lookout
- D.At VFR levels
Q41. ICAO annex for ac operations is:
- A.Annex 1
- B.Annex 3
- C.Annex 6✓
- D.Annex 17
Q42. Minimum distance from jet blast:
- A.100’
- B.200 m
- C.43 m
- D.200 feet✓
Q43. time 0550 there is no night flying facilities, earliest departure can be at:
- A.0550
- B.0620
- C.0520✓
- D.0650
Q44. Emergency and cockpit check list is to be carried by
- A.All a/c✓
- B.Scheduled a/c
- C.None scheduled a/c
- D.Aerial work a/c only
Q45. If aircraft has undertaken a flight on route not defined by designated significant points the pilot is required to report aircraft position.
- A.Every hour
- B.Every 30 minutes
- C.Every 45 minutes
- D.First time just after half an hour after take off and thereafter every hour✓
Q46. One pilot will be designated as PIC of a public transport aircraft for each flight by:
- A.The operator✓
- B.DGCA
- C.Flying contract unit
- D.None of the above is correct
Q47. R/W directions are given in:
- A.grid north
- B.true north
- C.magnetic north✓
- D.compass north
Q48. CO poisoning symptoms:
- A.Tightening of forehead.
- B.Loss of muscular power.✓
- C.Increased sense of well being.
Q49. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
- A.ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
- B.ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
- C.ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention✓
Why: Article 38 obligates states to notify ICAO about differences from international standards in the Annexes (within 60 days for amendments).
Q50. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
- A.The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft
- B.The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown
- C.The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation✓
Why: Article 12 of the Chicago Convention: Over the high seas, the rules in force are those established under this Convention.
Q51. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPs for:
- A.Air Traffic Services
- B.Aerodromes✓
- C.Facilitation
Why: Annex 14 covers Aerodromes (Vol I: Aerodrome Design and Operations; Vol II: Heliports).
Q52. The Warsaw Convention and later amendments deals with:
- A.Limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-a-vis passengers and goods transported✓
- B.Operator's license for international scheduled aviation
- C.The security system at airports
Why: The Warsaw Convention deals with the financial liability of airlines (operators) regarding passengers, baggage, and cargo.
Q53. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
- A.Aerodromes
- B.Security✓
- C.Facilitation
Why: Annex 17: Safeguarding International Civil Aviation against Acts of Unlawful Interference (Security).
Q54. The State has to notify the Council of ICAO if a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard. The notice period is:
- A.It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO
- B.It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard✓
- C.It shall give immediate notice to ICAO
Why: Article 38: Exactly 60 days. This is a critical exam number.
Q55. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
- A.Hague Convention
- B.Warsaw Convention✓
- C.Tokyo Convention
Why: Warsaw Convention 1929 defines the financial liability of air carriers for carriage of persons, baggage, and cargo.
Q56. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered:
- A.Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference✓
- B.Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
- C.Binding for all airline companies with international traffic
Why: ICAO Standards are binding (mandatory) for member states unless they have formally notified ICAO of a difference under Article 38.
Q57. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:
- A.Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is overflying, provided they follow the ICAO rules
- B.Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator, if registered in other State
- C.Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration to the extent that they do not conflict with the rules published by the State having jurisdiction over the territory overflown✓
Why: Article 12: The State of registration's rules apply, but they must not conflict with the rules of the state having jurisdiction over the territory overflown.
Q58. An airplane is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the air will be exercised?
- A.3rd freedom
- B.4th freedom
- C.2nd freedom✓
Why: 2nd Freedom: The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes (e.g., a technical/fuel stop).
Q59. The Tokyo Convention applies to:
- A.Offences caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered therein, by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state✓
- B.Offences only caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
- C.Offences caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless of the registration
Why: Tokyo Convention applies to offences and acts committed on board aircraft registered in a contracting State, while in flight or on the surface of the high seas or any other area outside the territory of any State.
Q60. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:
- A.Warsaw
- B.Chicago✓
- C.Montreal
Why: ICAO was established by the Chicago Convention, 1944.
Q61. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
- A.Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface✓
- B.Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
- C.Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
Why: Rome Convention 1952 covers damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface of the earth.
Q62. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is:
- A.The convention of Rome
- B.The convention of Tokyo✓
- C.The convention of Chicago
Why: Tokyo Convention 1963: Convention on Offences and Certain Other Acts Committed on Board Aircraft.
Q63. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law:
- A.May not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
- B.May require the assistance of passengers to restrain such persons
- C.May deliver such person to the competent authorities✓
Why: Article 6 of Tokyo Convention: Commander may restrain and deliver such person to competent authorities. Note: Commander may request but NOT require passengers; can require crew.
Q64. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in another state, which convention covers this?
- A.Paris
- B.Chicago
- C.Rome✓
Why: Rome Convention 1952 covers damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface.
Q65. India is a signatory to the International Air Transport Agreement, 1944:
- A.Yes
- B.Yes, but it does not subscribe to Technical Freedoms
- C.No✓
Why: India has NOT ratified the International Air Transport Agreement 1944 (which grants Commercial Freedoms 3rd–5th). India only ratified the IASTA 1944 (Technical Freedoms — 1st and 2nd).
Q66. The convention signed by states moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
- A.The Paris Convention
- B.The Rome Convention✓
- C.The Warsaw Convention
Why: Rome Convention 1952: Liability for damage caused on the ground by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface.
Q67. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
- A.Annex 16
- B.Annex 18✓
- C.Annex 17
Why: Annex 18: Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air. (Annex 16 = Environmental Protection; Annex 17 = Security)
Q68. Proposal to give effect to an International Convention in India is initiated by:
- A.Ministry of Civil Aviation
- B.Parliament
- C.DGCA✓
Why: DGCA carries out amendments to the Aircraft Act, Aircraft Rules, and CARs for complying with ICAO Annex amendments, and initiates proposals for giving effect to international Conventions.
Q69. The second freedom of the air is the:
- A.Right to operate a commercial passenger flight between two states
- B.Right to land for a technical stop✓
- C.Right to cabotage traffic
Why: 2nd Freedom: The privilege to land for non-traffic (technical) purposes — e.g., a fuel or maintenance stop.
Q70. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight, and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
- A.The Tokyo Convention
- B.The Montreal Convention✓
- C.The Warsaw Convention
Why: Montreal Convention 1971: Suppression of Unlawful Acts Against the Safety of Civil Aviation (sabotage, destroying aircraft, damaging navigation facilities).
Q71. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
- A.The Convention of Rome
- B.The Convention of Warsaw
- C.The Convention of Tokyo✓
Why: Tokyo Convention 1963 grants the Aircraft Commander powers to impose reasonable measures including restraint upon a person committing or about to commit an offence on board.
Q72. 'Cabotage' refers to:
- A.Domestic air services✓
- B.A national air carrier
- C.Crop spraying
Why: Cabotage (Article 7): The right of a State to refuse foreign airlines permission to carry passengers/cargo for hire between two points within the same territory — i.e., domestic air services.
Q73. In case of a conflict between ICAO regulations and national regulations, which one takes precedence?
- A.ICAO regulations are always binding for all member states in the interest of uniformity
- B.ICAO regulations for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference within a specified period✓
- C.National regulations always take precedence over ICAO regulations
Why: ICAO Standards are binding for member states that have NOT notified ICAO of a national difference (Article 38). If a state notifies ICAO within 60 days, its own national regulation takes precedence for that state.
Q74. Which convention is considered to be a forerunner of the Chicago Convention, 1944?
- A.Warsaw Convention, 1929
- B.Paris Convention, 1919✓
- C.Ibero-American Convention, 1926
Why: Paris Convention 1919 is considered the forerunner (predecessor) of the Chicago Convention 1944. It established ICAN, while Chicago established ICAO.