In-Flight NavigationAir Navigation — DGCA CPL practice questions

Question 1 of 175

The most accurate method of in-flight position fixing using visual reference alone is:

A.Estimated position from last DR

B.Two or more position lines from identified landmarks

C.Single bearing from one VOR

D.Timing over a known feature

All 175 questions — In-Flight Navigation

Air Navigation · DGCA CPL. The correct option is marked on each.

Q1. The most accurate method of in-flight position fixing using visual reference alone is:
- A.Estimated position from last DR
- B.Two or more position lines from identified landmarks✓
- C.Single bearing from one VOR
- D.Timing over a known feature
Why: A visual fix using two or more position lines (transferred or simultaneous) from positively identified ground features provides a reliable position with acceptable accuracy.
Q2. A position line is:
- A.The planned track on a chart
- B.A line along which the aircraft is known to be at a given time✓
- C.Any line of latitude or longitude
- D.The line between departure and destination
Why: A position line is any line (bearing, radial, distance arc, etc.) on which the aircraft is known to be at a specific time. Two intersecting position lines give a fix.
Q3. When the actual groundspeed is higher than planned, the effect on ETA is:
- A.ETA moves earlier (arrive sooner)✓
- B.ETA moves later
- C.No effect
- D.Depends on wind direction
Why: Higher groundspeed means less time to cover the same distance — the aircraft arrives earlier than originally planned (ETA is reduced).
Q4. Revising ETA after obtaining an actual fix should be done by:
- A.Using original planned GS for remaining distance
- B.Using actual GS observed to date for remaining distance✓
- C.Averaging planned and actual GS
- D.Not revising until 50% of trip is complete
Why: ETA revision = remaining distance ÷ actual GS observed. Using actual GS gives the best estimate for the remainder of the flight under current conditions.
Q5. A 'transferred position line' is used when:
- A.Two simultaneous position lines are available
- B.Only one position line can be obtained at a time✓
- C.GPS is unavailable
- D.Flying at night over water
Why: When only one position line is available, it is noted with its time and advanced along the track vector; when a second position line is obtained, the transferred line gives a running fix.
Q6. The Point of No Return (PNR) is the point from which:
- A.The aircraft cannot continue to destination
- B.The aircraft cannot return to the departure aerodrome with remaining fuel✓
- C.Only an emergency landing is possible
- D.The aircraft must declare minimum fuel
Why: PNR (also called Point of Safe Return) is the furthest point to which the aircraft can fly and still have enough fuel to return to the point of departure (or an alternate).
Q7. The Equal Time Point (ETP) is defined as the point where:
- A.Fuel remaining equals fuel burned
- B.Time to continue equals time to return✓
- C.Headwind equals tailwind
- D.TAS equals groundspeed
Why: At the ETP (Critical Point), the time to fly forward to the destination equals the time to turn back to the departure point — useful for engine-failure diversion planning.
Q8. Map reading is easiest when flying:
- A.Fast and high over featureless terrain
- B.Along a river or coastline where chart features match ground✓
- C.Into sun
- D.At minimum altitude in IMC
Why: Linear features like rivers, coastlines, and roads are the easiest to identify during map reading as they can be followed progressively and cross-checked against the chart.
Q9. A pilot realises they are left of track. To regain track and then maintain it, they should:
- A.Turn right to track and hold
- B.Turn right beyond track angle, then correct back when on track✓
- C.Immediately turn to destination
- D.Report to ATC and wait for vectors
Why: Standard procedure: turn right (toward track) by an amount greater than the drift to regain track, then reduce heading to the original track-maintaining heading once back on track.
Q10. Track Error Angle is:
- A.The same as drift
- B.The angle between the planned track and the heading being flown
- C.The angle between the planned track and the track made good✓
- D.The angle between the heading and Magnetic North
Why: Track Error Angle (TEA) is the angle between the planned track and the track actually made good (TMG). It is NOT the same as drift (which is the angle between heading and track). TEA = difference between planned track direction and TMG direction.
Q11. You are flying from A to B. You find that your position is 60 NM outbound from A and 7 NM left of the required track. What is your track error angle?
- A.3°L
- B.4°L
- C.7°L✓
- D.9°L
Why: Using the 1-in-60 rule: Track Error Angle = (distance off track / distance gone) × 60 = (7/60) × 60 = 7°. The aircraft is 7° left of the required track.
Q12. You are flying from G to H. Your position is 30 NM outbound from G and 4 NM left of the required track. What is your track error angle?
- A.4°L
- B.6°L
- C.8°L✓
- D.10°L
Why: Track Error Angle = (4/30) × 60 = 8°. The 1-in-60 rule states that 1 NM off track in 60 NM along track equals 1° of track error.
Q13. You are flying from A to B on a required track of 045°(T). Your position is 80 NM outbound from A and 4 NM left of the required track. What is your track made good?
- A.038°(T)
- B.042°(T)✓
- C.048°(T)
- D.052°(T)
Why: TEA = (4/80) × 60 = 3°. The aircraft is 3° left of track, so the TMG = 045° - 3° = 042°(T).
Q14. You are on an ILS 3° glide slope. Your DME range is 25 NM from the threshold. What is your height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use 1-in-60 rule, 6000 ft = 1 NM)
- A.8010 feet✓
- B.7450 feet
- C.6450 feet
- D.7550 feet
Why: At 3° slope, height per NM = 3 × 100 ft = 300 ft/NM (from 1-in-60). At 25 NM: 25 × 300 = 7500 ft. Add 50 ft threshold height = 7550... but the precise formula gives 25 × 6000 × 3/60 = 7500, plus 50 ft threshold crossing height ≈ 7550 ft. The best answer accounting for the actual 1-in-60 geometry is 8010 ft (from the exact trig: 25 NM × 6000 × tan 3° ≈ 7854 ft + 50 ft = 7904 ft, nearest answer 8010).
Q15. You are flying from Q to R on a required track of 125°(T). Your position is 40 NM from R and 2 NM left of the required track. What track must you fly to arrive overhead R?
- A.122°(T)
- B.125°(T)
- C.128°(T)✓
- D.131°(T)
Why: Closing angle = (2/40) × 60 = 3°. To fly directly to R you must add the closing angle to the required track (since you are left of track, turn right): 125° + 3° = 128°(T).
Q16. By what amount must you change your rate of descent given a 10-knot increase in headwind on a 3° glide slope?
- A.50 ft/min increase
- B.30 ft/min increase
- C.50 ft/min decrease✓
- D.30 ft/min decrease
Why: On a 3° glide slope, for every 1 knot change in ground speed, ROD changes by about 5 ft/min (100 ft per NM × 3°/60 min at 1 knot ≈ 5 ft/min). A 10-knot headwind increase REDUCES ground speed by 10 knots, so ROD must DECREASE by 10 × 5 = 50 ft/min to remain on slope.
Q17. An aircraft has planned to fly from A to B, a total distance of 135 NM. After flying 45 NM the aircraft is 3 NM left of the planned track. Using the 1-in-60 rule, what would be the alteration of heading to fly directly to B?
- A.6° right✓
- B.4° right
- C.8° right
- D.4° left
Why: TEA = (3/45) × 60 = 4°. Distance remaining = 90 NM. Closing angle = (3/90) × 60 = 2°. Total heading change = TEA + CA = 4° + 2° = 6° right.
Q18. A QTE is defined as:
- A.The magnetic track from the aircraft to a ground station
- B.The magnetic bearing of the aircraft from a ground station
- C.The true bearing of the aircraft from a ground station✓
- D.The true track to a ground station from the aircraft
Why: QTE is the True bearing of an aircraft FROM a ground DF station. It is measured at the ground station in degrees True. The Q-code system: T=True, E=from the station (equipment). QDM = magnetic TO; QDR = magnetic FROM.
Q19. When plotting an ADF bearing on a Lambert chart, the bearing should be plotted:
- A.From the meridian of the NDB, applying chart convergence
- B.From a line parallel to the aircraft's meridian drawn through the NDB✓
- C.From the aircraft's position directly
- D.From the mid-meridian between aircraft and NDB
Why: ADF bearings are measured at the aircraft, so the bearing reference is the aircraft's meridian. To plot from the NDB, draw a line parallel to the aircraft's meridian through the NDB and plot the reciprocal bearing from this parallel meridian. This automatically accounts for chart convergence.
Q20. For VOR radials and VDF bearings, the variation used to convert from magnetic to true is:
- A.Variation at the aircraft's position
- B.Variation at the ground station✓
- C.Mean variation along the route
- D.Variation at the mid-point between aircraft and station
Why: VOR and VDF bearings are measured at the ground station (the encoding is done at the transmitter). Therefore, variation at the ground station is applied to convert to true bearing. For ADF (measured at the aircraft), variation at the aircraft is used.
Q21. A rhumb line is:
- A.The vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
- B.A straight line on a Lambert's conformal chart
- C.A line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle✓
- D.The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface
Why: A rhumb line is defined as a line on the surface of the Earth that cuts all meridians at the same angle. It gives a constant direction of travel, which is ideal for compass navigation, though it is not the shortest distance (great circle) between two points.
Q22. An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W?
- A.101°
- B.059°✓
- C.239°
- D.329°
Q23. An island is observed to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120o(M), variation 17o(W). The bearing (oT) from the aircraft to the island is:
- A.122
- B.088✓
- C.268
- D.302
Q24. A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 min later on a relative bearing of 270°. The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt. What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?
- A.3 NM
- B.12 NM
- C.9 NM✓
- D.6 NM
Q25. An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120o(M) and the magnetic variation 17°W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?
- A.122°
- B.302°
- C.088°
- D.268°✓
Q26. An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E?
- A.160°
- B.130°
- C.220°✓
- D.190°
Q27. During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
- A.groundspeed✓
- B.position
- C.track
- D.drift
Q28. An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E?
- A.046°✓
- B.086°
- C.226°
- D.026°
Q29. An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 020° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25° W?
- A.145°✓
- B.195°
- C.205°
- D.325°
Q30. A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:
- A.160°✓
- B.220°
- C.310°
- D.130°
Q31. Given: Aircraft height 2500 ft ILS GP angle 3° At what approximate distance from TRH can you expect to capture the GP?
- A.14.5 NM
- B.7.0 NM
- C.13.1 NM
- D.8.3 NM✓
Q32. An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
- A.650 ft/min
- B.6500 ft/min✓
- C.4500 ft/min
- D.3900 ft/min
Q33. On a 12% glide slope, your ground speed is 540 knots. What is your rate of descent?
- A.6550 feet/min✓
- B.4820 feet/min
- C.8740 feet/min
- D.3120 feet/min
Q34. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL 80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?
- A.1900 ft/min
- B.1800 ft/min✓
- C.1600 ft/min
- D.1700 ft/min
Q35. An aircraft at FL 330 is required to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL 100. The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?
- A.1950 ft/min✓
- B.1650 ft/min
- C.1750 ft/min
- D.1850 ft/min
Q36. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 ft/min and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
- A.79 NM
- B.69 NM✓
- C.49 NM
- D.59 NM
Q37. Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 ft/min?
- A.26.7 NM✓
- B.19.2 NM
- C.38.4 NM
- D.16.0 NM
Q38. At 65 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL 330 in order to arrive over the VOR at FL 100. Your mean groundspeed in the descent is 240 knots. What rate of descent is required?
- A.1420 feet/min✓
- B.1630 feet/min
- C.1270 feet/min
- D.1830 feet/min
Q39. An aircraft at FL 370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL 120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately:
- A.1650 ft/min✓
- B.2400 ft/min
- C.1000 ft/min
- D.1550 ft/min
Q40. Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5° GS = 150 kt What is the approximate rate of descent?
- A.1000 ft/min
- B.700 ft/min
- C.900 ft/min✓
- D.800 ft/min
Q41. At 0422 an aircraft at FL 370, GS 320 kt, is on the direct track to VOR X 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR X at FL 80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 ft/min at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at which to commence descent is:
- A.0448
- B.0445✓
- C.0451
- D.0454
Q42. An aircraft at FL 350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:
- A.1390 ft/min
- B.1340 ft/min✓
- C.1240 ft/min
- D.1290 ft/min
Q43. An aircraft at FL 390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL 70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 ft/min, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?
- A.53 NM✓
- B.58 NM
- C.63 NM
- D.68 NM
Q44. An aircraft at FL 290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL 80. Mean GS during descent is 271 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?
- A.1700 ft/min
- B.2000 ft/min
- C.1900 ft/min✓
- D.1800 ft/min
Q45. Given: TAS = 197 kt True course = 240° W/V = 180/30 kt Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM. What is the approximate rate of descent?
- A.800 ft/min
- B.1400 ft/min✓
- C.950 ft/min
- D.1500 ft/min
Q46. An aircraft is descending down a 6% slope whilst maintaining a G/S of 300 kt. The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
- A.1800 ft/min✓
- B.10800 ft/min
- C.3600 ft/min
- D.900 ft/min
Q47. The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 ft above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
- A.1400 ft
- B.1450 ft✓
- C.1350 ft
- D.1300 ft
Q48. Given: ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC GS is 441 kt TAS is 491 kt At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC. The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
- A.60 kt
- B.90 kt
- C.75 kt
- D.40 kt✓
Q49. An aircraft at FL 140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 min later than planned. Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the reporting point the IAS should be reduced by:
- A.25 kt
- B.20 kt✓
- C.30 kt
- D.15 kt
Q50. An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs A at 1000 UTC. After flying 150 NM along track from A, the aircraft is 2 min behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at B?
- A.1203
- B.1206✓
- C.1153
- D.1157
Q51. An aircraft at FL 310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned. Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to:
- A.M 0.76
- B.M 0.74✓
- C.M 0.78
- D.M 0.80
Q52. TAS = 240 knots The relative bearing from an NDB is 315R at 1410. At 1420 the bearing has changed to 270R. What is your distance from the NDB at 1420?
- A.40 nm✓
- B.50 nm
- C.60 nm
- D.70 nm
Q53. An aircraft at position 2700N 17000W travels 3000 km on a track of 180T, then 3000 km on a track of 090T, then 3000 km on a track of 000T, then 3000 km on a track of 270T. What is its final position?
- A.2700N 17000W
- B.0000N 17000W
- C.2700N 17318W✓
- D.2700N 14300W
Q54. A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: radial 180o+/- 1°, distance = 200 NM. What is the approximate error?
- A.+/- 3.5 NM✓
- B.+/- 1 NM
- C.+/- 2 NM
- D.+/- 7 NM
Q55. An aircraft at FL 120, IAS 200 kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 min later than planned. Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:
- A.169 kt
- B.165 kt
- C.159 kt✓
- D.174 kt
Q56. An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs A at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along track from A, the aircraft is 3 min ahead of planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at B?
- A.1401 UTC
- B.1333 UTC✓
- C.1347 UTC
- D.1340 UTC
Q57. An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs A at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM along track from A, the aircraft is 1.5 min behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at B?
- A.1110 UTC
- B.1115 UTC✓
- C.1044 UTC
- D.1050 UTC
Q58. Given: Distance A to B = 120 NM After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point B?
- A.8° left
- B.6° right
- C.4° right
- D.8° right✓
Q59. What is the Rhumb Line track from A (4500N 01000W) to B (4830N 01500W)?
- A.315 T✓
- B.330 T
- C.215 T
- D.150 T
Q60. A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165o(M), variation 25°W, drift 10° right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280° the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:
- A.30 NM and 240°✓
- B.40 NM and 110°
- C.40 NM and 290°
- D.30 NM and 060°
Q61. An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same position is 270°. Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
- A.50 NM
- B.40 NM✓
- C.60 NM
- D.30 NM
Q62. Given: Distance A to B is 100 NM Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course What heading alteration must be made to reach B?
- A.6° Right
- B.9° Right
- C.15° Right✓
- D.18° Right
Q63. Given: Distance A to B is 90 NM Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course What heading alteration must be made to reach B?
- A.4° Left
- B.16° Left
- C.12° Left✓
- D.8° Left
Q64. The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60 NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at position B?
- A.6° Right✓
- B.8° Right
- C.2° Left
- D.4° Right
Q65. An aircraft at FL 370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 min later than planned. If the speed reduction were to be made 420 nm from the reporting point, what Mach Number is required?
- A.M 0.79
- B.M 0.73
- C.M 0.75
- D.M 0.81✓
Q66. Given: Distance A to B is 475 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1000 UTC, 1040 UTC – fix obtained 190 NM along track. What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at B?
- A.320 kt
- B.360 kt
- C.300 kt
- D.340 kt✓
Q67. As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, co-ordinates 35o32.7N 139o46.3W are input instead of 35o32.7N 139o46.3E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52° N 180°W, the longitude value show on the INS will be:
- A.080o27.4W
- B.099o32.6W✓
- C.099o32.6 E
- D.080o27.4 E
Q68. Given: Distance A to B 1973 NM Groundspeed out 430 kt Groundspeed back 385 kt Safe endurance 7 hr 20 min The distance from A to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) A is:
- A.1664 nm
- B.1698 nm
- C.1422 nm
- D.1490 nm✓
Q69. Given: Distance A to B 2346 NM Groundspeed out 365 kt Groundspeed back 480 kt The time from A to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between A and B is:
- A.167 min
- B.219 min✓
- C.260 min
- D.197 min
Q70. You are flying from A (30S 20E) to B (30S 20W). What is the final GC track?
- A.250° (T)
- B.270° (T)
- C.280° (T)✓
- D.300° (T)
Q71. An aircraft at latitude 10° North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/hr. What will be its latitude after 3 hrs?
- A.03° 50'S
- B.02° 00'S✓
- C.12° 15'S
- D.22° 00'S
Q72. An island is observed to be 30° to the right of the nose of the aircraft. The aircraft heading is 290o(M), variation 10o(E) The bearing (oT) from the aircraft to the island is:
- A.330✓
- B.270
- C.250
- D.310
Q73. You are heading 080°T when you get a range and bearing fix from your AWR on a headland at 185 nm 30° left of the nose. What true bearing do you plot on the chart?
- A.050 from the headland, using the headland's meridian
- B.050 from the headland, using the aircraft's meridian
- C.230 from the headland, using the headland's meridian
- D.230 from the headland, using the aircraft's meridian✓
Q74. An aircraft starts from (S0400.0 W17812.2) and flies north for 2950 nm along the meridian, then west for 382 nm along the parallel of latitude. What is the aircraft's final position?
- A.N45100 E172138✓
- B.N53120 W169122
- C.N45100 W169122
- D.N53120 E172138
Q75. An aircraft at latitude S0612.0 tracks 000°T for 1667 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
- A.S2112.0
- B.N2112.5
- C.N0848.0✓
- D.N0914.0
Q76. An airraft departs from N0212.0 E0450.0 on a track of 180°T and flies 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
- A.S1112.5
- B.S0813.0
- C.S0357.0✓
- D.S0910.5
Q77. A is at S4500.0 W01000.0 B is at S4500.0 W03000.0 The true course of an aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree is:
- A.263°
- B.270°
- C.277°✓
- D.284°
Q78. An aircraft at position 6010.0N 00512.2W flies 165 km due East. The aircraft's new position is:
- A.6010.0N 00812.0E
- B.6010.0N 00212.4W✓
- C.6010.0N 00110.8E
- D.6010.0N 00110.8W
Q79. You are heading 345M, the variation is 20E, and you take a radar bearing of 30 left of the nose from an island. What bearing do you plot?
- A.160T
- B.155T✓
- C.140T
- D.180T
Q80. The flight log gives the following data: True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass heading. The right solution, in the same order, is:
- A.125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117°
- B.115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121°
- C.117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°
- D.119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116°✓
Q81. Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up of te B737-400 Electronic Flight Intrument System?
- A.IDENT – RTE – DEPARTURE
- B.POS INIT – RTE – IDENT
- C.IDENT – POS INIT – RTE✓
- D.POS INIT – RTE – DEPARTURE
Q82. In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during pre- flight to:
- A.manully initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information✓
- B.automatically initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information
- C.manually initialise the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information
- D.manually initialise the IRSs, FMC and Autothrotle with dispatch information
Q83. In which of the following situations is the FMC present position of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System likely to be least accurate?
- A.At top of descent
- B.At top of climb
- C.Just after take-off✓
- D.On final approach
Q84. How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
- A.DME ranges and/or VOR/ADF bearings
- B.DME/DME or VOR/DME
- C.DME/DME✓
- D.VOR/DME range and bearing
Q85. What is the validity period of the permanent data base of aeronautical information stored in the FMC in the B737-400 Flight Management System?
- A.28 days✓
- B.One calendar month
- C.3 calendar months
- D.14 days
Q86. Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routeing and performance parameters?
- A.Flight Management Computer
- B.Multi-Function Control Display Unit✓
- C.Inertial Reference System
- D.Flight Director System
Q87. Given: Distance A to B is 325 NM Planned GS 315 kt ATD 1130 UTC 1205 UTC – fi obtained 165 NM along track What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at B?
- A.335 kt
- B.375 kt
- C.395 kt
- D.355 kt✓
Q88. The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS) as for example installed in the B737-400 is to provide:
- A.both manual navigation guidance and performance management
- B.manual navigation guidance and automatic performance management
- C.continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual performance management
- D.continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management✓
Q89. Which of the following can all be stored as five letter waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
- A.Waypoint names; navaid frequencies; runway codes; airport ICAO identifiers
- B.Airway names; navaid identifiers; airport names; waypoint code numbers
- C.Waypoint names; navaid identifiers; runway numbers; airport ICAO identifiers✓
- D.Waypoint names; navaid positions; airport ICAO identifiers; airport names
Q90. Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
- A.IDENT✓
- B.INITIAL
- C.POS INIT
- D.PERF INIT
Q91. What are the levels of message on the Boeing 737-400 FMC?
- A.Urgent and Routine
- B.Priority and Alerting
- C.Alert and Advisory✓
- D.Urgent and Advisory
Q92. Which of the following lists all the methods that can be used to enter Created Waypoints into the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
- A.Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place bearing; latitude and longitude;waypoint name
- B.Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place distance; along/across track displacement; latitude and longitude
- C.Identifier bearing/distance; place distance/place distance; along track displacement; latitude and longitude✓
- D.Identifier bearing/distance; place distance/place distance; along-track displacement; latitude and longitude
Q93. What indication, if any, is given in the B737-400 Flight Management System if radio updating is not available?
- A.A warning message is displayed on the IRS displays
- B.A warning message is displayed on the EHSI and MFDU✓
- C.A warning message is displayed on the Flight Director System
- D.No indication is given so long as the IRS positions remain within limits
Q94. What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
- A.Priority and Alerting
- B.Urgent and Routine
- C.Alerting and Advisory✓
- D.Urgent and Advisory
Q95. An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active. On route AB, the true track:
- A.varies by 10°
- B.decreases by 6°
- C.varies by 4°
- D.increases by 5°✓
Q96. In a Flight Management System (FMS), control Display Units (CDUs) are used pre-flight to
- A.manually initialise the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information
- B.automatically initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information
- C.manually initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information✓
- D.manually initialise the IRSs, FMC and Air Data Computer with dispatch information
Q97. When can a pilot change the data in the FMS data base?
- A.Every 28 days
- B.When deemed necessary
- C.When there is a fault
- D.He can't; for the pilot the FMS data base is read only✓
Q98. The FMC position is:
- A.The average of the IRS positions
- B.The average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
- C.Computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions✓
- D.Computer generated from the radio navigation positions
Q99. Which of the following can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics:
- A.Waypoints, latitude and longitude and SIDs/STARs
- B.ICAO aerodrome indicators, navigation facilities and SIDs/STARs
- C.Waypoints, airway designators and latitude and longitude
- D.Navigation facilities, reporting points and airway designators✓
Q100. What does the sensor of an INS/IRS measure?
- A.Velocity
- B.Precession
- C.Horizontal Earth Rate
- D.Acceleration✓
Q101. An INS platform is kept at right angles to local gravity by applying corrections for the effects of: i. Aircraft manoeuvres ii. Earth rotation iii. Transport wander iv. Coriolis v. Gyroscopic inertia
- A.i, iii and v
- B.ii, iii and v
- C.ii, iv and v
- D.ii, iii and iv✓
Q102. The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
- A.the vertical and horizontal plane
- B.the vertical plane
- C.the horizontal plane✓
- D.any plane
Q103. What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout?
- A.Mach Number
- B.IAS
- C.Altitude and OAT
- D.TAS✓
Q104. In an IRS:
- A.the accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilised
- B.the platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised
- C.accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised
- D.accelerometers and platform are both strapped down✓
Q105. In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous sytem, an aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device:
- A.without damping and a period of 84.4 min
- B.with damping and a period of 84.4 min✓
- C.without damping and a period of 84.4 sec
- D.with damping and a period of 84.4 sec
Q106. With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:
- A.not required
- B.required to provide a W/V read out✓
- C.required for Polar navigation
- D.required for rhumb line navigation
Q107. In what plane is gyro wander known as drift?
- A.Horizontal✓
- B.Vertical
- C.Horizontal and vertical
- D.Neither – it is a separate phenomenon
Q108. In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to:
- A.enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates
- B.overcome laser lock✓
- C.compensate for transport wander
- D.stabilise the laser frequencies
Q109. An Inertial Navigation System, what is the output of the first stage North/South integrator?
- A.Groundspeed
- B.Latitude
- C.Velocity along the local meridian✓
- D.Change of latitude
Q110. What measurement is used to carry out alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?
- A.Acceleration sensed by the east gyro horizontal accelerometer✓
- B.Acceleration sensed by the north gyro horizontal accelerometer
- C.Acceleration sensed by the north gyro ertical accelerometer
- D.Difference in magnitude of the value of gravity compared with the gravity at the last known position
Q111. The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is:
- A.velocity along the local parallel of latitude✓
- B.change of longitude
- C.vehicle longitude
- D.departure
Q112. What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure?
- A.Solid state
- B.Rigid
- C.Strapdown✓
- D.Ring laser
Q113. One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as lock-in is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo- electric motor, that is used to correct this error?
- A.Dither✓
- B.Cavity rotation
- C.Zero drop
- D.Beam lock
Q114. In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground speed (GS) is calculated:
- A.from TAS and W/V from RNAV data
- B.from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)
- C.by integrating measured acceleration✓
- D.by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively
Q115. The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:
- A.latitude
- B.groundspeed
- C.change latitude
- D.velocity along the local meridian✓
Q116. IRS differs from INS in that it:
- A.has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity
- B.has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock✓
- C.does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration
- D.does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down and are not rotated by a V/R feedback loop
Q117. Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give:
- A.distance north/south
- B.vehicle longitude
- C.distance east/west✓
- D.velocity east/west
Q118. Some inertial reference systems are known as strapdown. This means:
- A.the system is mounted on a stabilised platform
- B.the system is mounted and fixed to the aircraft structure✓
- C.the accelerometers are fixed bu the gyros are stabilised
- D.the gyros are fixed but the accelerometers are stabilised
Q119. Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as strapdown. This means that:
- A.only the gyros and not the accelerometers, become part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure
- B.gyros, and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft
- C.gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference
- D.the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the units fixture to the aircraft structure✓
Q120. The principle of Schuler Tuning as applied to the operation of inertial Navigation Systems Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to:
- A.both gyro-stabilised platform and strapdown systems✓
- B.only gyro-stabilised systems
- C.both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non strapdown mode
- D.only to strapdown laser gyro systems
Q121. After alignment of the stable platform of an Inertial Navigation System, the output data from the platform is:
- A.acceleration north/south and east/west and true heading
- B.latitude, longitude and attitude
- C.acceleration north/south and east/west, attitude and true heading✓
- D.latitude, longitude and true heading
Q122. In an Inertial Reference System, accelerations are measured in relation to:
- A.the direction of true north
- B.WGS 84 Earth co-ordinates
- C.local vertical at the aircraft position
- D.aircraft axis✓
Q123. Inertial Reference System sensors include:
- A.one east-west and one north-south gyro; one east-west and one north- south accelerometer
- B.accelerometers mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis
- C.laser gyros mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis
- D.accelerometers, and laser gyros, mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis✓
Q124. The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of:
- A.aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis✓
- B.gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift
- C.vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift
- D.movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation
Q125. The purpose of the TAS input, from the air data computer, to the Inertial Navigation System is for:
- A.position update in Attitude mode
- B.the calculation of wind velocity✓
- C.position update in Navigation mode
- D.the calculation of drift
Q126. A laser reference system (IRS), as compared to a gyro reference system (INS):
- A.is not strapped down and is adversely affected by g-forces
- B.is strapped down and is not adversely affected by g-forces✓
- C.the platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are not
- D.the accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is not
Q127. Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the CDU is correct?
- A.The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled because of a detected malfunction
- B.The positions will be the same because they are an average of three difference positions
- C.The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from different sources✓
- D.The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting the present position at the departure airport
Q128. After alignment, is it possible to update IRS positions?
- A.Yes – by operation of the TO/GA switch, the runway threshold co- ordinates are inserted into the IRS
- B.No✓
- C.Yes, the pilots can insert updates
- D.Yes, theprocess is automatic in flight from the DMEs
Q129. Alignment of INS and IRS equipments can take place in which of the following modes?
- A.ATT and ALIGN
- B.NAV and ALIGN✓
- C.ALIGN and ATT
- D.NAV and ATT
Q130. Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct?
- A.It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight
- B.The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried out in flight
- C.The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order to obtain an in-flight realignment
- D.The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, in inoperative for the remainder of the flight✓
Q131. During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is north aligned by inputs from:
- A.horizontal accelerometers and the east gyro✓
- B.the aircraft remote reading compass system
- C.computer matching of measured gravity magnitude to gravity magnitude of initial alignment
- D.vertical accelerometers and the north gyro
Q132. During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:
- A.will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial longitude
- B.will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial longitude✓
- C.will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude
- D.will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude
Q133. When initial position is put into an FMS, the system:
- A.rejects initial latitude error, but it will accept longitude error
- B.rejects initial longitude error, but it will accept latitude error
- C.rejects initial latitude or longitude error✓
- D.cannot detect input errors, and accepts whatever is put in
Q134. Which of the following statements is correct concerning gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)?
- A.Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations
- B.Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations✓
- C.Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations
- D.Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations
Q135. The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser ring gyros is approximately:
- A.5 min
- B.20 min
- C.2 min
- D.10 min✓
Q136. A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident:
- A.everything returns to normal and is usable
- B.no useful information can be obtained from the INS
- C.it can only beused for attitude reference✓
- D.the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
Q137. Which of the following statements concerning the alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation Systems (INS/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid- latitudes is correct?
- A.INS/IRS can only be aligned in the ALIGN mode
- B.INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or NAV mode✓
- C.INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT mode
- D.INS/IRS can only be aligned in NAV mode
Q138. When and where are IRS positions updated?
- A.During all phases of flight
- B.Only on the ground during the alignment procedure✓
- C.When the FMS is in IRS ONLY NAV operation
- D.When the VHF Nav Radios are selected to AUTO
Q139. After alignment of the stable platform of the Inertial Navigation System, the output data from the INS computer to the platform is:
- A.rate corrections to the gyros✓
- B.accelerations from the accelerometers
- C.attitude
- D.latitude and longitude
Q140. The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order to enable the system to make a successful alignment for navigation is:
- A.airport ICAO identifier
- B.aircraft heading
- C.the position of an in-range DME
- D.aircraft position in latitude and longitude✓
Q141. The full alignment of the stable platform on an Inertial Navigation System:
- A.may be carried out on the ground or when in straight and level flight
- B.may be carried out during any phase of flight
- C.is only possible on the ground when the aircraft is at a complete stop✓
- D.may be carried out at any time so long as an accurate position is inserted into the system
Q142. The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the position given by this unit. T being the elapsed time. The total error is:
- A.sinusoidal
- B.proportional to the square of time, t?
- C.proportional to t/2
- D.proportional to t✓
Q143. The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 0.01°/hr. After a flight of 12 hrs with a ground speed of 500 kt, the error on the aeroplane position is approximately:
- A.6 NM
- B.1 NM
- C.12 NM✓
- D.60 NM
Q144. Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is completely correct?
- A.The platform iskept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather than mechanically but it has a longer spin up time
- B.It does not suffer from lock in error and it is insensitive to gravitational (g) forces
- C.There is little or no spin up time and it does not suffer from lock in error
- D.There is little or no spin up time and it is insensitive to gravitational (g) forces✓
Q145. Comparing the Present Position display on the Boeing 737-400 FMC, you note that there is a 10-mile difference between the left IRS and the right IRS positions. This means that:
- A.One system is in IRS ONLY NAV operation and the other has the VHF Nay Radios selected to AUTO
- B.No special significance – this is normal
- C.At least one of the IRS is drifting✓
- D.One position has been computer generated from radio nay positions whilst the other is raw IRS
Q146. Within the platform levelling loop of an earth-vertical referenced INS:
- A.The levelling signals are unbounded, with a period of 84.4 seconds
- B.The levelling signals are bounded with a period of 84.4 minutes✓
- C.The levelling signals are unbounded, with a period of 84.4 minutes
- D.The levelling signals are bounded, with a period of 84.4 seconds
Q147. An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems Central Display Units (CDU) shows: -XTK on INS 1 = 0 –XTK on INS 2 = BL (XTK = cross track) From this information it can be deduced that:
- A.the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode
- B.only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting
- C.only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting
- D.at least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting✓
Q148. ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
- A.only attitude and heading information✓
- B.only attitude information
- C.navigation information
- D.altitude, heading and position information
Q149. In the Boeing 737-400 FMS, the CDU is used to:
- A.manually initialise the IRS and FMC with dispatch information✓
- B.automatically initialise the IRS and FMC with dispatch information
- C.manually initialise the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information
- D.manually initialise the Flight Director System, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information
Q150. The period of validity of an FMS database is:
- A.56 days
- B.one week
- C.28 days✓
- D.varies depending on the area of operational cover
Q151. What are the positions (in the order left to right) on the Boeing 737-400 IRS MSU mode selector?
- A.OFF STBY ALIGN NAV
- B.OFF ON ALIGN NAV
- C.OFF STBY ATT NAV
- D.OFF ALIGN NAV ATT✓
Q152. With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS) the initial great circle track between computer inserted waypoints will be displayed when the control display unit (CDU) is selected to:
- A.TK/GS
- B.HDG/DA
- C.DSRTK/STS✓
- D.XTK/TKE
Q153. On a triple-fit IRS system, present positions on the CDU:
- A.will only differ if one IRS has been decoupled due to a detected malfunction
- B.will only differ if an initial input error of aircraft position has been made
- C.are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources✓
- D.will not differ as the information is averaged
Q154. Aircraft position determined by radio navigation in an FMC is derived from:
- A.VOR/DME
- B.DME ranges and/or VOR/ADF bearings
- C.VOR/ADF
- D.DME only✓
Q155. Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats. In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs?
- A.Bearing and distance
- B.Geographic co-ordinates✓
- C.Hexadecimal
- D.By waypoints name
Q156. When is the last point at which an INS or IRS may be selected to NAV mode?
- A.After passengers and freight are aboard
- B.Immediately prior to push back or taxi from the gate✓
- C.At the holding point
- D.On operation of the TOGA switch when opening the throttles for the take- off
Q157. Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
- A.OFF – ON – ALIGN – NAV
- B.OFF – ALIGN – NAV – ATT✓
- C.OFF – STBY – ALIGN – NAV
- D.OFF – ALIGN – ATT – NAV
Q158. On the IRS, selection of ATT mode gives?
- A.attitude and heading✓
- B.altitude, heading, and groundspeed
- C.altitude, attitude, and heading
- D.attitude information only
Q159. On an INS, what is the output of the E/W second-stage integrator?
- A.Velocity N/S
- B.Distance N/S
- C.Distance E/W✓
- D.Velocity E/W
Q160. Gyro-compassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to:
- A.ATT/REF
- B.STBY
- C.ALIGN✓
- D.ON
Q161. Which of the following statements concernikng the operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct?
- A.NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the gate✓
- B.NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-off
- C.NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or freight
- D.NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is commenced
Q162. What method of entering waypoints can be used on all INS equipments?
- A.Distance and bearing
- B.Waypoint name
- C.Navaid identifier
- D.Latitude and longitude✓
Q163. Gyro-compassing in an INS:
- A.is possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
- B.is not possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
- C.is not possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors✓
- D.is possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and initial alignment errors
Q164. In what formats can created waypoints be entered into the scratch pad of the B737-400 FMS?
- A.Place Bearing/Distance, Place Distance/Place Distance, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude
- B.Place Bearing/Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing, Across-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude
- C.Place Bearing/Distance, Place Bearing/Place Bearing, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude✓
- D.Place, Place Bearing/Distance, Along-Track Displacement, Latitude and Longitude
Q165. The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS). WPT 1:60°N 30°W; WPT 2:60°N 20°W; WPT 3:60°N 10°W The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route (1- 2-3). The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately:
- A.a 9° increase
- B.zero
- C.a 9° decrease✓
- D.a 4° decrease
Q166. The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS). The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55o00N 020o00W) and No. 4 (55o00N 030o00W). With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:
- A.278°
- B.274°✓
- C.266°
- D.270°
Q167. The sensors of an INS measure:
- A.precession
- B.velocity
- C.the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
- D.acceleration✓
Q168. What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management System (FMS)?
- A.Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading
- B.The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor 9flux valve) positioned in the wing-tip
- C.The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
- D.Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS✓
Q169. Where and when are the IRS positions updated?
- A.During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC
- B.Only on the ground during the alignment procedure✓
- C.IRS positions are updated by pressing the Take-off/Go-around button at the start of the take-off roll
- D.Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)
Q170. The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of 10o?
- A.30°S to 25°S
- B.60°N to 50°N
- C.30°S to 30°N
- D.60°N to 80°N✓
Q171. An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The co-ordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W) have been entered. The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:
- A.277°
- B.284°
- C.263°✓
- D.270°
Q172. Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial Reference System (IRS) display is correct?
- A.It is updated when go-around is selected on take-off
- B.It is constantly updated from information obtained by the FMC
- C.It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV✓
- D.The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a best position which is displayed on the IRS
Q173. Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS) /Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct?
- A.NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the gate✓
- B.NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-off
- C.NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or freight
- D.NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is commenced
Q174. An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1: 60°N 030°W WPT 2: 60°N 020°W When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:
- A.60° 00.0'N
- B.59° 49.0'N
- C.60° 11.0'N
- D.60° 05.7'N✓
Q175. What is the sequence of pages on start-up of the Boeing 737-400 FMS?
- A.POS INIT, IDENT, DEPARTURES
- B.IDENT, POS INIT, RTE✓
- C.POS INIT, RTE, IDENT
- D.IDENT, POS INIT, DEPARTURES